Friday, April 24, 2015

HEPATITIS A & B

HEPATITIS A
Edward Feller, MD
BASICS
DESCRIPTION
Infection with the hepatitis A virus (HAV) primarily involving the liver.
One of the world’s most common viral diseases.
EPIDEMIOLOGY
Pediatric Considerations
Disease is often milder or asymptomatic in pediatric population,
severity increases with age.
Infections are asymptomatic in 70% of children age <6 years.
In 2009, <1/2 of 13–17-year-olds (in the US) had been vaccinated (1).
As many as ½ of current HAV infections in the US acquired from travel
to endemic countries.
Pregnancy Considerations
Pregnant women with HAV have increased gestational complications,
pre-term labor.
Incidence
World-wide problem: 1.4 million cases globally.
Since the hepatitis A vaccine has been in use (1995), incidence of HAV
has decreased by >90% (2).
Estimated cases: 22,000 HAV infections in 2009 (lowest ever recorded in
the US)
Incidence in the US: 0.6/100,000
Predominant sex: Male = Female
Prevalence
Serologic evidence of prior HAV infection: 1/3 of US population. Anti-
HAV prevalence related to age, ranging from 9% in children ages 6–11 to
75% of those >70. Related inversely to income
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ETIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Hepatitis A is a single-stranded linear RNA enterovirus and a member of
the Picornaviridae family.
Humans are the only natural host.
Incubation is 2–6 weeks:
Mean of 4 weeks
Greatest infectivity is during the 2 weeks before the onset of clinical
illness.
Infection occurs after eating food or drinking water contaminated with
HAV or direct contact with infected person who has poor personal
hygiene.
Food can become contaminated if handled by an infected individual
with poor personal hygiene.
Shellfish, such as clams and oysters, may be contaminated if harvested
from waters contaminated with HAV.
Bloodborne transmission occurs, but is rare.
No chronicity in HAV
Genetics
Autoimmune hepatitis is associated with human leukocyte antigen class
II; DR3 and DR4 after active infection with HAV, although rare.
RISK FACTORS
Foreign travel to developing countries accounts for >50% of cases in
North America and Europe.
Employment in health care
Household exposure
Intimate exposure, especially men who have sex with men
Childcare centers, schools
Institutionalized individuals
Clotting factor disorders, such as hemophilia
Blood exposure/transfusion rare
No identifiable risk factor in 50%
GENERAL PREVENTION
HAV vaccines: Havrix and Vaqta; Twinrix- combination HAV and HBV
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vaccine for active immunization only
Separate syringe site from immunoglobulin
For travelers, daycare staff/children, custodial facility employees,
sewage workers, military, men who have sex with men (MSM), food
handlers, IVDUs
For close contacts of children adopted from countries with HAV
infection. Ideally ≥2 weeks before arrival
HIV-infected patients who are negative for HAV IgG should receive HAV
vaccine series, preferably early in course of HIV infection:
If CD4 count is <200 cells/mm3 or the patient has symptomatic HIV
disease, it is preferable to defer vaccination until several months after
initiation of antiretroviral (ARV) therapy to maximize the antibody
response to the vaccine (2)[A].
Coadministration of the HAV vaccine with measles-mumps-rubella
(MMR) and varicella vaccines had no impact on the immunogenicity
of any of the vaccines and was well tolerated (3)[B].
Passive immunization: Immunoglobulin is
effective for both pre- and postexposure prophylaxis of hepatitis A (4)
[A]:
0.02–0.06 mL/kg IM given within 2 weeks after exposure prevents
illness in 80–90%.
HAV vaccine has similar efficacy to immunoglobulin in postexposure
prophylaxis if given within 2 weeks.
Use immunoglobulin in cases where travelers need immediate
protection, children age <1 year, and pregnant women who will be
traveling.
Use 0.06 mL/kg q5mo for long-term travelers if they are unable to
receive the vaccine.
Do not give immunoglobulin with MMR or varicella vaccines.
Good sanitation; good hygiene, including handwashing, especially for
food handlers, healthcare, and daycare workers
HAV is not killed by freezing.
HAV is killed by:
Heating to 185°F for 60 seconds
Chlorine
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Iodine
DIAGNOSIS
HISTORY
Fever
Malaise
Nausea and vomiting, headache
Anorexia
Dark urine:
Right upper abdominal pain
Fatigue; myalgias
Pruritus; a sign of cholestasis
Symptom severity has direct correlation to age.
Pediatric cases frequently asymptomatic
Incubation: 15–50 days (mean of 28 days)
PHYSICAL EXAM
Hepatomegaly or splenomegaly are possible
Fever
Jaundice
Right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
Hepatitis B, C, D, E
Not clinically distinguishable from other forms of viral hepatitis;
diagnosis may be suspected with typical symptoms during an outbreak.
Infectious mononucleosis, CMV
Primary or secondary hepatic malignancy
Ischemic hepatitis
Drug-induced hepatitis
Alcoholic hepatitis
Hemochromatosis in adults
Autoimmune hepatitis; Wilson disease
Nonhepatobiliary disease (elevated AST/ALT): Celiac disease, congestive
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heart failure, thyroid disease
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS & INTERPRETATION
Initial Tests (lab, imaging)
AST and ALT elevated: ALT usually > AST
Hepatocellular injury pattern
Anti-HAV IgM: Positive at time of onset of symptoms with sensitivity
and specificity > 95%
Anti-HAV IgG: Appears soon after IgM and generally persists for years
Alkaline phosphatase: Mildly elevated
Bilirubin: Conjugated and unconjugated fractions usually increased.
Usually follows rises in ALT/AST.
Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time: Usually remain
normal or near normal:
Significant rises should raise concern.
CBC: Mild leukocytosis; aplasia and pancytopenia are rare:
Thrombocytopenia may predict illness severity.
Albumin, electrolytes, and glucose
Urinalysis: Bilirubinuria
Usually not needed
Consider US to rule out biliary obstruction only if lab pattern is
cholestatic.
Follow-Up Tests & Special Considerations
Illness usually resolves within 4 weeks from onset of symptoms. Usually
can be managed as outpatient
Diagnostic Procedures/Other
Liver biopsy usually not necessary
Test Interpretation
Portal inflammation
Immunofluorescent stains for HAV-antigen positive
Positive serum markers in hepatitis A:
Acute disease: Anti-HAV IgM
Recent disease: Anti-HAV IgM and IgG positive
Previous disease: Anti-HAV IgM negative and IgG positive
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TREATMENT
GENERAL MEASURES
Monitor coagulation defects, fluid and electrolytes, acid–base
imbalance, hypoglycemia, and impairment of renal function (5).
Report acute cases to local public health department.
Maintain bed rest and appropriate nutrition/hydration.
MEDICATION
Postexposure prophylaxis to persons within 2 weeks of exposure to HAV:
Administer hepatitis A vaccine to persons between the ages of 1 and 40.
Administer immunoglobulin to persons <1 and >40 years of age.
First Line
No antiviral medications indicated; spontaneous resolution occurs in
almost all patients
Steroids not indicated unless patient has autoimmune hepatitis
Second Line
Antiemetics
IV fluids
Pruritus: Diphenhydramine 50 mg PO/IM q6h and cholestyramine 4 g
b.i.d.
ISSUES FOR REFERRAL
Dictated by severity of illness
Hepatic failure
SURGERY/OTHER PROCEDURES
Liver transplant in fulminant hepatic failure
COMPLEMENTARY AND ALTERNATIVE MEDICINE
Avoid botanicals with hepatotoxicity potential, including barberry,
comfrey, golden ragwort, groundsel, huang qin, kava kava, pennyroyal,
sassafras, senna, valerian, wall germander, wood sage.
IN-PATIENT CONSIDERATIONS
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Admission Criteria/Initial Stabilization
Treatment is usually outpatient; dictated by severity of illness.
IV Fluids
Treat dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
Nursing
Enteric isolation. Private rooms, gowns, and masks are not necessary.
Frequent handwashing. Use gloves when handling material potentially
contaminated with feces.
ONGOING CARE
FOLLOW-UP RECOMMENDATIONS
Return to work/school 10–14 days after onset of symptoms with diligence
to hygiene
Patient Monitoring
Monitor coagulation defects, fluid and electrolytes, acid–base
imbalance, hypoglycemia, and impairment of renal function.
Report acute cases to local public health department.
Usually infectious 4 weeks from initial symptoms
DIET
Adequate balanced nutrition
Avoid alcohol.
Avoid medications that may accumulate in the liver.
PATIENT EDUCATION
Segregate food handlers with HAV.
HAV immunity after infection
CDC Hepatitis A Fact Sheet Link:
http://www.cdc.gov/hepatitis/A/PDFs/HepAGeneralFactSheet_BW.pdf
PROGNOSIS
Excellent; mortality is 0.2%.
Risk increased with underlying chronic liver disease and in the elderly
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COMPLICATIONS
Coagulopathy, encephalopathy, and renal failure
Relapsing HAV: Usually milder than the initial case
Positive anti-HAV IgM. Total duration is usually <9 months.
Prolonged cholestasis: Characterized by protracted periods of jaundice
and pruritus (>3 months)
Resolves without intervention
Autoimmune hepatitis: Good response to steroids
Hepatic failure: Rare (1–2%)
Postviral encephalitis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, aplastic or hemolytic
anemia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenic purpura, pancytopenia,
arthritis, vasculitis, and cryoglobulinemia (all rare)
HEPATITIS B
Michael P. Curry, MD
BASICS
DESCRIPTION
Systemic viral infection that may cause acute and chronic liver disease
and hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
EPIDEMIOLOGY
Incidence
Predominant age: All ages
Predominant sex: Fulminant hepatitis B virus (HBV): Male > Female
(2:1)
In the US, estimated 38,000 new infections in 2009, 70% due to IV drug
use
African Americans: Highest rate of acute HBV infection in the US
Overall rate of new infections down 82% since 1991 (due to national
immunization strategy)
US vaccine coverage increased from 68.6% in 2011 to 71.6% in 2012 for
the birth dose of HepB (1)[A]
Prevalence
In the US, 800,000–1.4 million people have chronic hepatitis B virus
(HBV).
Asia and the Pacific Islands have the largest populations at risk for HBV.
Chronic HBV worldwide: 350–400 million persons:
Per year: 1 million deaths:
2nd most important carcinogen (behind tobacco)
Of chronic carriers, 25% die of cirrhosis or HCC
Of chronic carriers, 75% are Asian
ETIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
HBV is a DNA virus of the family Hepadnaviridae.
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Genetics
Family history of HBV and/or HCC to determine exposure and future
HCC risk
RISK FACTORS
Screen high-risk groups with HBsAg/sAb (1)[A]:
Persons born in endemic areas (45% of world)
Hemodialysis patients
IV drug users (IVDU), past or present
Men who have sex with men (MSM)
HIV- and HCV-positive patients
Household members of HBsAg carriers
Sexual contacts of HBsAg carriers
Inmates of correctional facilities
Patients with chronically elevated aspartate aminotransferase/alanine
aminotransferase (ALT/AST)
Vaccinate all above groups if negative.
Additional risk factors:
Needle stick/occupational exposure
Recipients of blood/products; transplanted organ recipients
Intranasal drug users
Body piercing/tattoos
Pediatric Considerations
Shorter acute course; fewer complications
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90% of vertical/perinatal infections become chronic
Pregnancy Considerations
Screen all pregnant women for HBsAg (2)[A].
High viral load at 28 weeks should prompt consideration for treatment
with oral nucleos(t)ide medicines from 32 weeks to reduce perinatal
transmission.
Infant of HBV-infected mother needs HB immune globulin (HBIg) (0.5
mL) plus HBV vaccine within 12 hours of birth and HBV series at 0, 1,
and 6 months (2)[A].
Breastfeeding is safe if HBIg and HBV vaccine are administered and
nipples are without fissures. Oral nucleos(t)ide medications are not
recommended in lactating mothers. Risk and benefits must be assessed.
HIV coinfection significantly increases risk of vertical transmission.
Continue medications if pregnancy occurs while on an oral antiviral
therapy to prevent acute flare.
GENERAL PREVENTION
Most effective: HBV vaccination series (3 doses):
Vaccinate:
All infants at birth
All at-risk patients (see “Risk Factors”)
Health care and public safety workers
Sexual contacts of HBsAg carriers
Household contacts of HBsAg carriers
Proper hygiene/sanitation by health care workers, IVDU, and
tattoo/piercing artists:
Barrier precautions, needle disposal, sterilization of equipment, cover
open cuts
Do not share personal items exposed to blood (e.g., nail clipper, razor,
toothbrush).
Safe sexual practices (condoms)
HBsAg carriers cannot donate blood or tissue.
Postexposure (e.g., needle stick): HBIg 0.06 mL/kg in <24 hours and
vaccination
COMMONLY ASSOCIATED CONDITIONS
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Arthritis, polyarteritis nodosa, membranous glomerulopathy, anemia
(including aplastic anemia), dermatitis, cardiomyopathy, hepatitis D
virus infection, metabolic syndrome
DIAGNOSIS
HISTORY
Exposure: Detailed family and social history
Acute HBV:
Fever, malaise, fatigue, arthralgias, myalgias
Anorexia, nausea, vomiting
Jaundice, scleral icterus
Dark urine, pale stools
Right upper quadrant (RUQ) abdominal pain
Chronic HBV: Typically asymptomatic
PHYSICAL EXAM
Acute: Ill; jaundice/scleral icterus; RUQ tenderness, hepatomegaly
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
Epstein–Barr virus (EBV); cytomegalovirus (CMV); hepatitis A, C, or E
Drug-induced, alcoholic, or autoimmune hepatitis
Wilson disease or rheumatologic/immunologic disorders
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS & INTERPRETATION
Initial Tests (lab, imaging)
AST/ALT: Marked elevation in acute HBV, particularly of ALT, 400 to
several thousand IU/mL (may be normal or mildly elevated in chronic
HBV):
Elevated before bilirubin elevates
Bilirubin: Normal to markedly elevated in acute HBV,
conjugated/unconjugated:
Last test to normalize as acute infection resolves
Alkaline phosphatase: Mild elevation
HBcAb IgM may be the only early finding (“window period,” when
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HBsAg/sAb–).
For acute hepatitis:
Monitor PT, albumin, electrolytes, glucose, CBC
If severe acute HBV, check for superinfection with hepatitis D (HDV Ag
and HBDV Ab)
Hepatitis B serologic markers
Hepatitis Be antigen (HBeAg+) indicates high replication/infectivity;
confirmed with high HBV DNA (≥105 copies/mL); these patients benefit
from medical therapy.
HBV precore mutants have undetectable HBeAg despite active viral
replication (confirm with HBV DNA level), as well as antibody to e
antigen (HBeAb+).
Screen for HDV, HIV, HCV, and immunity to hepatitis A virus (HAV Ab
total/IgG).
US to demonstrate ascites, splenomegaly, portal hypertension, rule out
obstruction, screen for HCC
Contrast CT or MRI if abnormal US or elevated α-fetoprotein (AFP)
Follow-Up Tests & Special Considerations
HBsAg+ persistence >6 months defines chronic HBV:
Measure HBV DNA level and ALT every 3–6 months.
If age >40 and ALT borderline or mildly elevated, consider liver biopsy.
Measure baseline AFP
Follow HBeAg for loss (every 6–12 months).
Lifetime monitoring for progression, need for treatment, and screening
for HCC
Diagnostic Procedures/Other
Liver biopsy, serum markers of fibrosis (Hepascore, Fibro test) or
measurement of elastography (Fibroscan) determines extent of injury and
excludes other liver disease.
Test Interpretation
Liver biopsy in chronic HBV may show interface hepatitis and
inflammation, necrosis, cholestasis, fibrosis, cirrhosis, or chronic active
hepatitis.
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TREATMENT
GENERAL MEASURES
Vaccinate for HAV if seronegative.
Monitor CBC, coagulation, electrolytes, glucose, renal function,
phosphate.
Monitor ALT and HBV DNA; increased ALT and reduced DNA implies
response to therapy.
Screen for HCC even in those without cirrhosis.
MEDICATION
First Line
Acute HBV:
Supportive care; antiviral therapy not indicated; spontaneously
resolves in 95% of immunocompetent adults. Treatment for acute HBV
resulting in acute liver failure.
Chronic HBV: Treatment based on HBeAg status:
FDA-approved drugs: Lamivudine 100 mg, adefovir 10 mg, entecavir
0.5–1 mg, telbivudine 600 mg, or tenofovir 300 mg, all given PO
every day (dose based on renal function); pegylated interferon (peg-
IFN) α2a SC weekly (2,3)[A]
Lamivudine is no longer recommended as first-line therapy due to high
rates of resistance.
Entecavir, tenofovir, peg-IFN are preferred first-line agents (2)[A].
Oral agents given for extended period:
If HBeAg+, treat 6–12 months postloss of HBeAg and gain of HBeAb,
and monitor after cessation (2)[A].
If HBeAg–, treat indefinitely or until HBsAg clearance and HBsAb
development (2)[A].
Change/Add drug based on development of resistance:
Confirm patient compliance with medications before assuming
resistance
Adherence to therapy lowers rate of resistance
Dose adjustment made for elevated creatinine
Standard interferon (Intron A) no longer used in favor of peg-IFN:
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Peg-IFN (Pegasys) injections given weekly for 48 weeks
Best efficacy in genotype A
Contraindicated if decompensated cirrhosis
Goals of therapy: Undetectable HBV DNA, normal ALT, loss of HBeAg,
gain of HBeAb; loss of HBsAg and gain of HBsAb
Precautions:
Oral drugs: Renal insufficiency
Peg-IFN: Coagulopathy, myelosuppression, depression/suicidal
ideation
Second Line
Emtricitabine effective; pending FDA approval
ISSUES FOR REFERRAL
Refer all HBsAg+ patients for consideration of antiviral therapy.
Refer to liver transplant program ASAP if fulminant acute hepatitis,
end-stage liver disease, or HCC.
SURGERY/OTHER PROCEDURES
Liver transplantation, operative resection, radiofrequency ablation
IN-PATIENT CONSIDERATIONS
Admission Criteria/Initial Stabilization
Worsening course (marked increase in bilirubin, transaminases, or
symptoms)
Hepatic failure (high PT, low albumin)
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ONGOING CARE
FOLLOW-UP RECOMMENDATIONS
Patient Monitoring
Vaccinate for HAV if seronegative (2)[B].
Monitor serial ALT and HBV DNA:
High ALT + low HBV DNA associated with favorable response to
therapy
Serologic markers: See chart
Metabolic complications and renal function
WBC/platelets with interferon therapy
Monitor HBV DNA q3–6 mo during therapy:
Undetectable DNA at week 24 of oral drug therapy associated with low
resistance at year 2.
Monitor for complications (ascites, encephalopathy, variceal bleed) in
cirrhosis.
DIET
Avoid alcohol
PATIENT EDUCATION
Acute HBV:
Review transmission precautions (2)[A].
Chronic HBV:
Alcohol/Smoking accelerates progression of liver disease.
Strict compliance with oral medication is critical to prevent flare.
Patient education materials in English and Spanish available at
www.cdc.gov/hepatitis/Resources/PatientEdMaterials.htm
PROGNOSIS
Acute infection: 95% of adults recover
Severity of encephalopathy predicts survival in fulminant hepatic
failure.
Acute HBV: Mortality 1%
Acute HBV + HDV: Mortality 2–20%
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Chronic HBV:
Spontaneous resolution: 0.5% per year
Premature death from cirrhosis or HCC: 25%
Risk of HCC rises with rate of viral replication, even if no cirrhosis
US and AFP q6–12 mo for screening (patient-specific guidelines) (2,4)
[B]
COMPLICATIONS
Acute or subacute hepatic necrosis; cirrhosis; hepatic failure
HCC (all chronic HBV patients are at risk)
Severe flare of chronic HBV with corticosteroids: Avoid corticosteroids if
possible.
Reactivation of resolved infection if immunosuppressed (e.g.,
chemotherapy): Prophylactic premedication recommended if HBsAg+
(2,4) or if HBcAb+ and received systemic chemotherapy.


AIPGMEE 2016 Surgery Biliary Tracr MCQ

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is most strongly contraindicated
in which of the following situations?
A. Pregnancy
B. Previous upper abdominal surgery
C. Known common bile duct stones
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E. Gallbladder cancer

COMMENTS: When laparoscopic cholecystectomy was first
introduced worldwide during the late 1980s, there were a number
of circumstances in which it was more or less strongly contraindicated.
Today, most contraindications are relative, and in fact the
laparoscopic approach is preferred when possible in certain situations
that were initially considered contraindications (e.g., acute
cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis, and obesity). Basically, the
surgeon must be adequately trained and the patient reasonably fit for
an operation and give informed consent that includes the possibility
of laparotomy. It must be recognized that there are patients for whom
the potential physiologic consequences of CO2 pneumoperitoneum
are more important, but the presence of underlying disease itself
does not prohibit a laparoscopic approach. In fact, laparoscopic
cholecystectomy may be more beneficial to the postoperative course
of a compromised patient. Pregnancy is not a contraindication with
appropriate precautions, although the physiologic effects on the
fetus are not completely known. Perhaps the strongest contraindication
currently involves patients with suspected or known gallbladder
cancer because of the risk for dissemination.
A N S W E R : E

Wednesday, April 22, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 MCQ ENT

In the external auditory canal, the apopilosebaceous unit is composed of:
a.Hair follicles and sebaceous and endocrine glands
b.Hair follicles sloughed squamous epithelium, and apocrine glands
c.Hair follicles and sebaceous and apocrine glands
d.Exfoliated cerumen, hair follicles and sebaceous glands
e.Glandular secretions, cerumen, and desquamated epithelium
Ans-C
The skin of the cartilaginous canal contains many hair cells and sebaceous and
apocrine glands such as cerumen glands . Together, these three adnexal structures provide
a protective function and are termed the apopilosebaceous unit.
PAG E 2333-Bailey's Head & Neck SurgeryOTOlARYNGOLOGY First Edition  2022

Tuesday, April 21, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 SPM

All of the following are true about Varicella virus ex
cept: [AIIMS Nov 2010]
(a) 10-30% chances of occurrence
(b) All stages of rash are seen at the same time
(c) Secondary attack rate is 90%
(d) Rash commonly seen in flexor area
Ans. (a) 10-30%chances of occurrence [Ref Park21/c pl34-36, Park 22/e pl36-37-38]
• Single attack of Varicella gives durable (lifelong) immunity

AIPGMEE 2016 Microbiology MCQ

A high school student who was appropriately immunized
with the diphtheria–tetanus–acellular pertussis
(DTaP) series by kindergarten, but who had received
no additional boosters since, stepped on a nail while
walking barefoot. The nail was easily removed and
the lesion freely bled. What should the student be
given?
(A) Equine tetanus antitoxin
(B) Human tetanus immune globulin
(C) Prophylactic antibiotic treatment for Clostridium
tetani
(D) No treatment
(E) Tetanus toxoid
The answer is E: Tetanus toxoid. Assuming that the child
has no defi ciencies with humoral immunity, the standard
of care is to provide a booster of tetanus toxoid to
a patient with the above clinical picture. It is currently
believed that the anamnestic response (i.e., memory cell
activity) will produce ample antibody long before the
tetanus bacillus is able to produce the damaging toxin.
In other words, the patient is actively immunized.

Saturday, April 18, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 MCQ OBG

Physiology of pregnancy
Regarding normal physiological changes in a healthy pregnancy, which one of the
following changes would NOT be consistent with expected changes?
a) 10% increase in heart rate by 12 weeks gestation
b) 20% increase in stroke volume by 12 weeks gestation
c) 20% increase in red cell volume by 28 weeks gestation
d) 20% increase in anatomical dead space by 28 weeks gestation
e) 50% increase in glomerular filtration rate by 12 weeks gestation
Answer: d
Explanation
Virtually every organ system exhibits physiological change during pregnancy to
compensate for the increased demands of sustaining the mother and growing foetus
and in preparation for the enormous physiological challenge of parturition. Causing
some frustration to candidates is that authoritative sources occasionally differ in their
account of some of the variations. An example of this is the calibre, volume and
resistance of large conducting airways. Some argue that capillary engorgement and
oedema reduce calibre whereas others propose that prostaglandin-mediated smooth
muscle relaxation causes dilation of conducting airways resulting in a marked reduction
in resistance and an increase in anatomical dead space by up to 45% at the third
trimester. Either way, Option (d) stands out as incorrect when compared to the correctness
of the other four options. The 20% increase in red cell volume is tempered by the
50% increase in plasma volume in the same period giving rise to the ‘physiological
anaemia of pregnancy’. Total blood volume increases by 40%. Other changes are not
listed here but it aids recall if they are categorised into cardiovascular, respiratory,
gastrointestinal (and hepatic), renal, haematological (including volumes), neurological
and those other changes secondary to the placenta as an endocrine organ.
Reference
Power I, Kam P. Maternal and neonatal physiology. In: Principles of Physiology for the
Anaesthetist. London: Arnold, 2001; pp. 345–52.

Friday, April 17, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 MCQ Anatomy Abdomen

Fusion of the caudal portions of the kidneys during
embryonic development is most likely to result in which of
the following congenital conditions?
A. Bicornuate uterus
B. Cryptorchidism
C. Horseshoe kidney
D. Hypospadias
E. Renal agenesis
Answer - C. During development, the kidneys typically “ascend”
from a position in the pelvis to a position high on the
posterior abdominal wall. Although the kidneys are bilateral
structures, occasionally the inferior poles of the two kidneys
fuse. When this happens, the “ascent” of the fused kidneys
is arrested by the first midline structure they encounter, the
inferior mesenteric artery. The incidence of horseshoe
kidney is about 0.25% of the population.

Wednesday, April 15, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 Pathology MCQ

A 77-year-old woman has chronic renal failure. Her serum
urea nitrogen is 40 mg/dL. She is given a diuretic medication
and loses 2 kg (4.4 lb). She reduces the protein in her diet and
her serum urea nitrogen decreases to 30 mg/dL. Which of the
following terms best describes cellular responses to disease and
treatment in this woman?
A Adaptation
B Apoptosis
C Necroptosis
D Irreversible injury
E Metabolic derangement
Answer- A
Normal cells handle physiologic demands and maintain
metabolic functions within narrow ranges, termed homeostasis.
Under disease conditions with stress on cells, there is
adaptation to a new steady state. In this case, the loss of renal
function leads to a higher urea nitrogen level as well as retention
of fluid. The diuretic induces loss of the excess fluid to
yield a new steady state. The protein restriction reduces urea
nitrogen excretion, which also leads to a new steady state.
Both are adaptations. Apoptosis refers to single cell necrosis
in response to injury. An irreversible injury leads to cell
death, but the changes described here are not evidence for
cellular necrosis. The metabolism of cells is maintained for
adaptation, with response to the diuretic and to protein restriction.

AIPGMEE 2016 MCQ CVS Medicine

A 15-year-old man presents to the clinic accompanied by his mother for evaluation of “red hands.”
He earned money last winter clearing sidewalks of snow and plans to do so again in the upcoming
weeks. He reports developing red discoloration of his hands after returning home from the cold. The
discoloration persisted for a few minutes until his hands were rewarmed. He denies weakness,
paresthesia, pain, or skin lesions. He is otherwise healthy. At the time of consultation, inspection of
his hands is unrevealing. Radial and ulnar pulses are 2+/2 bilaterally. The Allen test and reverse
Allen test reveal return of color to the hands in 7 seconds bilaterally. His mother reports that she and
her mother both have Raynaud phenomenon. The patient’s mother expresses concern that her son may
have systemic lupus and she requests further testing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Raynaud disease
b. Raynaud phenomenon
c. Normal physiologic cold response
d. Acrocyanosis
e. Thermal injury

Answer - c. Normal physiologic cold response.
This patient is exhibiting a normal response to prolonged
exposure to cold. The diagnosis of Raynaud phenomenon is clinical and includes the presence of
pallor or acrocyanosis and pain with cold exposure. Redness of the hands with warming after
prolonged cold exposure, without concomitant pain, may be a normal response in a healthy young
individual. He should be counseled to wear gloves and report any change in his symptoms, as his
family history does predispose him to development of Raynaud phenomenon.

AIPGMEE 2016 SPM mcq

All of the following statements are true about the childhood mortality rates in India except:
(a) Almost 2/3rd of infant mortality rate (IMR) occurs in neonatal period
(b) Almost 2/3rd of the under -five mortality occurs in the first year of life
(c) About one in ten children die before they reach the age of five years
(d) Neonatal mortality is higher among female children as compared to males
Ans. (d) 
[Ref. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/23151996 , Park 21/e p51S-30, Park 22/e p520-32]
Infant mortality is higher in boys than girls in most parts of the world. This has been explained by sex differences in genetic and biological makeup, with boys being biologically weaker and more susceptible to diseases and premature death. At the same time, recent studies have found that numerous preconception or prenatal environmental factors affect the probability of a baby being conceived male or female. I propose that these environmental factors also explain sex differences in mortality. I contribute a new methodology of distinguishing between child biology and preconception environment by comparing male-female differences in mortality across opposite-sex twins, same-sex twins, and all twins. Using a large sample of twins from sub-Saharan Africa, I find that both preconception environment and child biology increase the mortality of male infants, but the effect of biology is substantially smaller than the literature suggests. I also estimate the interacting effects of biology with some intrauterine and external environmental factors, including birth order within a twin pair, social status, and climate. I find that a twin is more likely to be male if he is the firstborn, born to an educated mother, or born in certain climatic conditions. Male firstborns are more likely to survive than female firstborns, but only during the neonatal period. Finally, mortality is not affected by the interactions between biology and climate or between biology and social status.
Almost 2/3rd of IMR occurs in neonatal period (IMR = 47 per 1000 LBand NNMR = 32 per 1000 LB)
Almost 2/3rd of the U5MRoccurs in the first year of life (IMR= 47 per 1000LBand U5MR= 63 per 1000 LB)
About one in ten children die before they reach the age of five years (U5MR= 63 per 1000 LB).
• Post-neonatal mortality rate (PNNMR): Is the number of neonataldeaths (deaths within completed28days after birth) per 1000 live births in that year

• IMR = NNMR + PNNMR = ENNMR + LNNMR + PNNMR

Tuesday, April 14, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 MCQ Surgery

All of the following have been associated with an increased risk for hungry bone syndrome after parathyroidectomy except:
A. Graves disease
B. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
C. Preoperative PTH level
D. Age
E. Large single adenomas

COMMENTS: “Hungry bone syndrome” is characterized by
postparathyroidectomy hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia.
Patients most at risk are those with four-gland hyperplasia from
secondary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. The postoperative
calcium level in these patients can drop critically low and necessitate
intravenous calcium supplementation. During this period
both serum calcium and phosphate levels must be monitored
closely. In some patients it can take more than 4 to 5 days for serum
calcium and phosphate levels to stabilize. Other patients shown to
have increased risk for this condition are those who are older or
have concomitant thyrotoxicosis or a large single adenoma. The
preoperative PTH level has not been found to be an independent
predictor of whether “hungry bone syndrome” will develop
postoperatively.
A N S W E R : C

Monday, April 13, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 MCQ Surgery

All of the following are indications for surgical treatment of
secondary hyperparathyroidism except:
A. Calcium-phosphate product of less than 70
B. Uremic pruritus
C. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
D. Calciphylaxis
E. Tumoral calcinosis


COMMENTS: Secondary hyperparathyroidism is most commonly
managed medically with the use of calcimimetic agents,
phosphate binders, adequate calcium intake, and vitamin D replacement.
Surgical treatment is indicated in patients with (1) renal
osteodystrophy, (2) calciphylaxis, (3) calcium-phosphate product
of greater than 70, (4) soft tissue calcium deposition and tumoral
calcinosis, and (5) calcium level greater than 11 mg/dL with an
inappropriately high level of PTH. Renal osteodystrophy is a
major issue in hemodialysis patients. The aluminum present in the
dialysate bath accumulates in bone and contributes to the development
of osteomalacia. Osteitis fibrosa cystica, a type of renal
osteodystrophy, is characterized by marrow fibrosis and increased
bone turnover. Bone cysts, osteopenia, and decreased bone strength
develop. To halt progression of this disease process, these patients
with secondary hyperparathyroidism are treated surgically. Calciphylaxis
is a rare vascular disorder in which calcium is deposited
in the media of small to medium-sized arteries. As a result, ischemic
damage to the dermal and epidermal structures develops. The
ulcerated lesions are extremely painful and can become infected
with subsequent sepsis and eventually death. Patients with early
signs of calciphylaxis should undergo urgent parathyroidectomy,
although there is some evidence that aggressive management of
serum calcium and parathyroid levels with cinacalcet may be beneficial.
Care should be taken in wound care management because
aggressive débridement can lead to chronic nonhealing wounds
since wound healing is very poor in these patients. Uremic pruritus
is characterized by severe itching that is thought to result from
increased deposition of calcium salt in the dermis without the
visible lesions of calciphylaxis. Parathyroidectomy seems to alleviate
these symptoms and halts progression to the more serious skin
and vascular complications seen with calciphylaxis.
A N S W E R : A

Sunday, April 12, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 Surgery MCQ

You examine a 35-year-old female patient who presents with a right parotid
swelling. Which of the following structures does not lie within the parotid gland?
A. Mandibular nerve
B. External carotid artery
C. Facial nerve
D. Marginal mandibular nerve
E. Retromandibular vein
answer - A Mandibular nerve
From superficial to deep, the following structures all lie within the
parotid gland:
• Facial nerve
• Retromandibular vein
• External carotid artery
The marginal mandibular nerve is a branch of the facial nerve. The
facial nerve enters the parotid gland as it emerges from the stylomastoid
foramen, giving rise to five branches (temporal branch, zygomatic
branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular nerve and cervical branch)
within the parotid gland.
Answer A is correct as the mandibular nerve (V3) is the third main
branch of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve 5) and does not lie within
the parotid gland. The other two main branches of the trigeminal nerve
are the ophthalmic (V1) and the maxillary (V2) nerves

Saturday, April 11, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 SurgeryMCQ

Postoperative fluid therapy
Q- 70 kg patient is 1 day following total hip replacement. He has not started
eating and drinking. He is being rehydrated with dextrose/saline (4% dextrose
and 0.18% saline). Which one of the following best describes this type of fluid
therapy?
A. It is an inappropriate fluid therapy for a postoperative patient
B. It contains 120 mmol of Na+ ions
C. Potassium supplementation is not required
D. Its osmolality is almost isotonic with plasma (286 mOsm/kg)
E. It has a pH of 7.35
\
Answer - D Its osmolality is almost isotonic with plasma (286 mOsm/kg)
Dextrose/saline is a useful fluid therapy in the early postoperative
period because it does not cause salt and water overload and provides
some energy to the patient. Dextrose/saline solution, otherwise known
as one-fifth normal saline, has an osmolality that is nearly isotonic
with plasma because of the 4% content of dextrose. It has a slightly
alkaline pH and contains approximately 30 mmol of sodium and chloride
ions. It does not contain K+ ions and so potassium supplementation
is important if the patient is not yet established on oral intake. It
predominantly replaces pure water losses that are common following
surgery. It is less useful in hypovolaemic resuscitation as it is a less
effective plasma expander than colloid or normal saline and in patients
who are losing excess salts.

Wednesday, April 8, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016

A recently deceased 92-year-old woman with a history of arrhythmia was discovered to have amyloid deposition in her atria upon autopsy. Upon further examination, there was no amyloid found in any other organs. The peptide at fault was identified and characterized by the pathologist performing the autopsy. Before its eventual deposition in the cardiac atria, which of the following functions was associated with the peptide? 


1.  Reduction of blood calcium concentration
2.  Antigen recognition
3.  Vasodilation 
4.  Slowing of gastric emptying
5.  Stimulation of lactation 
DISCUSSION: Upon autopsy, this patient was discovered to have amyloid deposits in the cardiac atria but interestingly in no other organs. By definition, this is isolated atrial amyloidosis (IAA) which is primarily caused by deposition of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) associated proteins. The function of ANP is vasodilation and reduction of total body sodium and water, through increased renal excretion. 

Amyloid is a generic term that refers to a group of diverse extracellular protein deposits. Although amyloids vary in amino acid sequence, all amyloid proteins are folded such that they share common ultrastructural and physical properties. All amyloids to be stain with congo red dye, which aids in diagnosis. Under polarized light, these deposits exhibit a red-green birefringence. In general, amyloidoses can be divided into systemic or isolated. By definition isolated amyloidosis is restricted to a single organ, as seen in this case as it is found only in the cardiac atria (isolated atrial amyloidosis).

Torricelli et al. report that alpha atrial natriuretic peptide is the protein responsible for isolated atrial amyloidosis upon histological evaluation of the myocardial tissue. This is unique to amyloid deposited only in the heart.

According to Steiner at al., autopsies reveal an 86% incidence of isolated atrial amyloidosis in those aged 81-90 years. This high frequency supports the idea that amyloid deposition is part of the senescence process of the heart. 

Illustration A shows a myocardial tissue biopsy with amyloid deposition. 
Illustration B shows a renal biopsy with congo red staining showing apple-green birefringence.

Incorrect answers:
Answer 1: Calcitonin reduces blood calcium and is commonly found in localized amyloidoses of the thyroid gland. 
Answer 2: Immune globulin light chain is involved in antigen recognition and causes multi-organ amyloid deposition that is not restricted to the cardiac atria.
Answer 4: Amylin slows gastric emptying and is found in localized amyloidoses in the pancreas.
Answer 5: Prolactin stimulates lactation and is found in localized amyloidoses of the pituitary gland.

Tuesday, April 7, 2015

HIV infection often results in MRI-detectable brain atrophy and white matter signal hyperintensities (WMSHs)

HIV infection often results in MRI-detectable brain atrophy and white matter signal hyperintensities (WMSHs).
 HIV+ patients compared to high-risk controls evidenced global atrophy, reduced caudate nuclei volume, and a trend to gray matter volume loss but no difference in white matter volume or in WMSHs. These effects were progressive with CDC clinical stage such that patients at CDC stage A had values very close to those of controls, while patients at CDC stage C had the most abnormal values. In contrast, the relationship between these MRI variables and severity of NP impairment was much less dramatic, with the mildly to moderately impaired HIV+ subjects showing MRI volume effects greater than or equal to those of the severely impaired HIV+ subjects. These results suggest that MRI-detectable brain atrophy secondary to HIV infection is not the primary substrate underlying the progressive NP impairment in HIV disease.
Neurocognitive disease associated with HIV infection has been separated into two categories: (1) a more severe form, HIV-1-associated dementia complex (HADC); and (2) a less severe form, HIV-1-associated minor cognitive-motor disorder.
 MRI-detectable brain atrophy is strongly associated with CDC stage of systemic HIV disease and much more weakly associated with severity of NP impairment. When HIV+ subjects were subgrouped by clinical stage, the MRI differences were directly and strongly associated with increasing severity of systemic disease.
 Opportunistic infections of the CNS remain the most common specifically identifiable source of neurologic disability 


AIPGMEE 2016 MCQ Medicine Neurology

A 34-year-old female complains of weakness and double vision for the last 3 weeks. She has also noted a change in her speech, and her friends tell her that she is “more nasal.” She has noticed decreased exercise tolerance and difficulty lifting objects and getting out of a chair. The patient denies pain. The symptoms are worse at the end of the day and with repeated muscle use. You suspect myasthenia gravis. All the following are useful in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis EXCEPT:
A. Acetylcholine receptor (AChR) antibodies
B. Edrophonium
C. Electrodiagnostic testing
D. Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies
E. Voltage-gated calcium channel antibodies
The answer is E.

(Harrison 18th edn Chap. 386) Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by weakness and fatigability of skeletal muscles. The primary defect is a decrease in the number of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction secondary to autoimmune antibodies. MG is not rare, affecting at least 1 in 7500 individuals. Women are affected more frequently than men. Women typically present in the second and third decades of life, and men present in the fifth and sixth decades. The key features of MG are weakness and fatigability. Clinical features include weakness of the cranial muscles, particularly the eyelids and extraocular muscles. Diplopia and ptosis are common initial complaints. Weakness in chewing is noticeable after prolonged effort. Speech may be affected secondary to weakness of the palate or tongue. Swallowing may result from weakness of the palate, tongue, or pharynx. In the majority of patients the weakness becomes generalized. The diagnosis is suspected after the appearance of the characteristic symptoms and signs. Edrophonium is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that allows ACh to interact repeatedly with the limited number of AChRs, producing improvement in the strength of myasthenic muscles. False-positive tests may occur in patients with other neurologic diseases. Electrodiagnostic testing may show evidence of reduction in the amplitude of the evoked muscle action potentials with repeated stimulation. Testing for the specific antibodies to AChR are diagnostic. In addition to anti-AChR antibodies, antibodies to MuSK have been found in some patients with clinical MG. Antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels are found in patients with the Lambert-Eaton syndrome.

Saturday, April 4, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 Tips for the students

Try to answer 75-100 macqs daily  of various subjects using materials from good coaching classes like TMCAA Thrissur http://www.tmcaa.org/
300days x100 = 30,000/year mcqs are sufficient for the good student to get a reasonably good rank.
If the keys are checked you may be able to get the questions where one went wrong.
Read only the topics where you went wrong.
2 hours per day is sufficient for attempting 100 mcqs per day

Friday, April 3, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 MCQ O&G

The labia minora:
a. Contain similar nerve endings to the labia majora
b. Are derived from the same embryological structure as the labia majora
c. Have lymphatic drainage to the superficial and deep inguinal nodes
d. Contain sebaceous glands
e. Contain sweat glands

Answer
a. T-They are, however, less dense.
b. F-The labia minora develop from genital folds while labia majora develop from genital swellings.
c. T
d. T
e. T

Thursday, April 2, 2015

AIPGMEE 2016 SPM MCQ

Question 1.
Regarding Rashtriya swasthya Bima yojana which is wrong?
a. government-run health insurance scheme
b. Every "below poverty line" (BPL) family holding a yellow ration card pays INR 30 registration fee
c. This enables them to receive inpatient medical care of up to INR 30,000
d. Pre-existing illnesses are not covered
Answer -D
Explanation-
government-run health insurance scheme
Every "below poverty line" (BPL) family holding a yellow ration card pays INR 30
This enables them to receive inpatient medical care of up to INR 30,000
Insured gets a biometric-enabled smart card containing their fingerprints and photographs
The scheme has won plaudits from the World Bank, the UN and the ILO as one of the world's best health insurance schemes
Pre-existing illnesses are covered from day one, for head of household, spouse and up to three dependent children or parents
This enables them to receive inpatient medical care of up to INR 30,000 per family per year in any of the empanelled hospitals

Pre-existing illnesses are covered from day one, for head of household, spouse and up to three dependent children or parents