Self learning Test Series from Ace PG Med 01

Self learning Test Series from Ace PG Med 01

“Ace PG Med” is a new venture exclusively to cater the needs of the new generation of young medicos who have eagerness to go for higher studies but unable to access the training centers due to various reasons like placement in rural areas, duty on the day of the class. The practice sessions in “ Ace PG Med “ will help to improve the speed and acquire higher rank and a good branch of interest to pursue post-graduate study in a reputed medical college.

About

Ace PG Med         

Self learning Test Series for acing Medical PG Entrance Examinations

Description           We are committed to your success in more than 10 medical PG entrance exams (PGI, AIIMS, JIPMER, CMC etc) conducted every year all over India. We provide self learning modules to learn practice and improve speed for acing tough entrance exams.

Our content is developed by Dr. N.S. Mani, Professor of Pediatrics at Government Medical College, Thrissur. Dr Mani was university gold medalist in all 16 subjects of MBBS curriculum. He has aced medical PG entrance exams securing 1st rank in Kerala state PG entrance, 3rd rank in PGI, 4th rank in CMC Vellore in 1984.

Mission  - To provide Medical PG aspirants the BEST content for acing entrance examinations

PG Entrance Test Practice Session (PGET): Carefully selected questions collected over last 27 years. These sessions are arranged in topic/subject wise. Learn to ace 30 high impact questions in each 20 minute session.

1. A scalp wound is bleeding profusely. In which layer of the scalp source of the bleeding is likely to be located?

A Aponeurosis  B. Dense connective tissue C. Loose connective tissue

D. Pericranium     E. Skin

1.Ans – B

2. The anterior quadrant of the scalp is not innervated by …

A Zygomaticotemporal B .Auriculotemporal C. Great auricular D. Supra-orbital

2.Ans – C

3. Which one is not a terminal branch of facial nerve?

A Temporal B. Zygomatic C. Infraorbital D. Marginal mandibular E. Cervical

3. Answer.c. Infraorbital nerve is the continuation of the maxillary nerve coming out through the Infraorbital foramen

4. Which is not a  branch of the facial artery in face-

A Mental B. inferior labial C. Superior labial D. Lateral nasal

4. Ans.A. The mental artery emerging at the mental foramen is the continuation-of the inferior alveolar artery, which in turn is a branch of the maxillary artery

5. Which structure is not related to the dorsal surface of the ischial spine

A. Pudendal nerve B.Internal Pudendal artery

C. Nerve to quadratus femoris D. Nerve to obturator internus

5. Ans C

6. Which muscle is not part of the floor of the femoral triangle?

A. Adductor brevis B. Pectineus C. Psoas major D. lliacus

6. Ans- A. - adductor brevis does not for part of the floor of the femoral triangle, the adductor longus forms the floor of the femoral triangle. Note that it also forms the medial boundary of the femoral triangle

7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the congenital talepes equinovarus (congenital clubfoot)?

A.Adduction B.lnversion C.Plantar flexion D.Lateral rotation-of the foot

7. Ans -D.

8. Stab wound of the thigh just above the patella infects the knee joint via

A. Ligamentum patellae B. Bursa anserine C. Suprapatellar bursa

D. Popliteal bursa

8. Ans C. The Suprapatellar (quadriceps) bursa communicates freely with the synovial knee joint and is regarded as a part of it. Therefore, stab wounds above may infect the knee joint through this bursa. When the knee is extended, the Suprapatellar is prevented from being caught between the bones by the pull of the articularis genu. The other bursae communicating with the knee joint include the popliteal, the anserine

Gastrocnemius bursae.

9. The anserine bursa (bursa anserina) is NOT associated with the tendons of….

A. Sartorius B. Gracilis C. Semitendinosus D. Popliteus

9. Ans. D. The attachment of the tendons of A, B & C to upper part of the medial surface of the Tibia resembles the foot of the goose to which the term 'Pes anserinus' is used. The bursa between these tendons is known as the anserine bursa. The branches of the facial nerve in the face have

a similar appearance, to which also, the term 'Pes anserinus is used'.

10. Which of the following movements tests the integrity of the deep peroneal nerve?

A. Plantar flexion of the foot B. Inversion of the foot

C. Eversion of the foot D. Extension of the great toe

10 Ans -.D.The deep peroneal nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg. The primary action of the muscles of this compartment is dorsiflexion of the foot. In addition, the tibialis anterior produces inversion of the foot and the peroneus tertius produces eversion of the foot. But, these movements are also produced by the tibialis posterior of the posterior compartment (inversion) and muscles of the lateral compartment (eversion). They are supplied by the tibial and the superficial peroneal nerve respectively. The extension of the great toe is

produced only by the contraction of the extensor hallucis longus, which is supplied by the deep peroneal nerve.

11. Mitochondria are transported to nerve terminals by

a) Anterograde rapid transport b) Retrograde rapid transport

c) Anterograde slow transport d) Retrograde slow transport

11. Ans A

 Axoplasmic transport Anterograde ( orthograde) -Slow ( MT) 0.5 -10 mm/d eg:-proteins

Fast-(MT&MM) 400mm/d eg:-vesicles, mitochondria Retrograde -(MT & dynein) 200mm/d eg:-tetanus toxin, viruses, charting of neural pathways

12. The rquilibrium potential of an ion is given by

a) Nerst equation           b) Goldman -Hodgkin -Katz equation

c)Gibbs Donnan equilibrium       d) Fick's law of diffusion

12. Ans –A

13. Graded potential differs from action potential in that the former

a)Has no threshold                                b)Has no refractory period        

c)Does not obey "All or None" law         d)AII of the above

13. Ans- D

The potential at any point in a cell's membrane is determined by the ion concentration differences between the intracellular and extracellular areas, and by the permeability of the membrane to each type of ion. The ion concentrations do not normally change very quickly (with the exception of calcium, where the baseline intracellular concentration is so low that even a small inflow may increase it by orders of magnitude), but the permeabilities can change in a fraction of a millisecond, as a result of activation of ligand-gated or voltage-gated ion channels. The change in membrane potential can be large or small, depending on how many ion channels are activated and what type they are. Changes of this type are referred to as graded potentials, in contrast to action potentials, which have a fixed amplitude and time course

14. RMP is close to iso-electric potential of

a)Na⁺   b)K⁺     c)CI^-     d)Mg⁺⁺

14. Ans C/B

15. After discharge is not seen in ….

a) Stretch reflex                         b) inverse stretch reflex            

c) Reciprocal innervation            d) Withdrawal reflex

15. Ans A

16. Which is not an endogenous pain modulator

a}Substance P              b)Serotonin

c)Acetyl choline             d)Histamine

16. Ans D

17. The only excitatory cell in the cerebellar cortex is

a) Stellate         b) Granule        

c)Purkinje          d) Golgi

18. What ion is responsible for the depolarization phase of the Action Potential?

a. Na⁺               b. K⁺

c. Ca⁺⁺             d. Mg⁺⁺

18 Ans A

19. Linear acceleration in horizontal, plane is detected by

a) Semicircular canals b)Utricle c) Saccule d)Organ of corti

19. Ans B

Semicircular canal detects-rotational acceleration

Saccule detects - Linear acceleration in vertical plane

20. Centre for olfactory memories is

a) Amygdala b) Entorhinal cortex c) Orbitofrontal cortex d) piriform cortex

20. Ans B

entorhinal cortex (EC) (ento = interior, rhino = nose, entorinal = interior to the rhinal sulcus) is located in the medial temporal lobe and functions as a hub in a widespread network for memory and navigation. The EC is the main interface between the hippocampus and neocortex. The EC-hippocampus system plays an important role in autobiographical/declarative/episodic memories and in particular spatial memories including memory formation, memory consolidation, and memory optimization in sleep. The EC is also responsible for the pre-processing (familiarity) of the input signals in the reflex nictitating membrane response of classical trace conditioning, the association of impulses from the eye and the ear occurs in the Entorhinal cortex.

21. The disaccharide having only glucose is

A. lactose B sucrose C. Trehalose          D. Lactulose

21 Ans C

Trehalose disaccharide formed by two α-glucose units. Lactose = galactose and glucose. Sucrose = glucose and fructose, Lactulose = fructose and galactose (synthetic, non-digestible sugar)

22. Which of the following is a Heteropolysaccharide?

A chitin B. inulin C Glycogen D. Heparin

Chitin is a long-chain polymer of a N-acetylglucosamine, a derivative of glucose

Inulins are a group of naturally occurring polysaccharides produced by many types of plants

Glycogen is the analogue of starch, a multi-branched polysaccharide

Homoglycans[Homopolysaccharide]-Only one type of Monosaccharide unit

When all the monosaccharides in a polysaccharide are the same type, the polysaccharide is called a homopolysaccharide or homoglycan, but when more than one type of monosaccharide is present they are called heteropolysaccharides or heteroglycans.

Examples include storage polysaccharides such as starch and glycogen, and structural polysaccharides such as cellulose and chitin.

Heparin also known as unfractionated heparin, a highly sulfated glycosaminoglycan,

23. The enzyme defect in McArdles disease is

a. Muscle Phosphorylase           b. Liver Phosphorylase

c. Branching Enzyme                 d. Muscle Phosphofructokinase

23. Ans –A. [McArdles disease is Type V - GSD Enzyme def: Myophosphorlylase Tissue- Muscle. Clinical - Poor exercise tolerance; muscle glycogen abnormally high (2.5-4%); blood lactate very low after exercise]

24.Normoglycemia is a feature of

A Von Gierke's disease b. Cori's disease

c. Her's disease            d. Mc Ardle's disease

24. Ans –d

Glycogen storage disease type I (GSD I) or von Gierke's disease causes severe hypoglycemia

Glycogen storage disease type III Cori's disease - presents during infancy with hypoglycemia and failure to thrive.

Glycogen storage disease type VI (GSD VI) Her's disease -is a type of glycogen storage disease caused by a deficiency in liver glycogen Phosphorylase- Mild hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperketosis may occur. Lactic acid and uric acid levels are normal.

Glycogen storage disease type V (GSD-V) Mc Ardle's disease- is a metabolic disorder, more specifically a glycogen storage disease, caused by a deficiency of myophosphorylae.

25. ln G6PD deficient patients. hemolysis is due to decreased

a.H+                 b.TPP               c.NADH            d.NADPH

25. Ans – d

G6PD converts glucose-6-phosphate into 6-phosphoglucono-δ-lactone and is the rate-limiting enzyme of this metabolic pathway that supplies reducing energy to cells by maintaining the level of the co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). The NADPH in turn maintains the supply of reduced glutathione in the cells that is used to mop up free radicals that cause oxidative damage.

The G6PD / NADPH pathway is the only source of reduced glutathione in red blood cells (erythrocytes). The role of red cells as oxygen carriers puts them at substantial risk of damage from oxidizing free radicals except for the protective effect of G6PD/NADPH/glutathione.

26. A 37 year old male with a family history of relative disappearing presents with abnormal behavior. He was smiling to himself and talked philosophically, avoiding other people. The most probable diagnosis is

a. Schizophrenia

b. Depression

c. Mania

d. Border line personality

26. Ans – A

27. A man coming from mountain whose wife died 6 month prior, says that his wife appeared to him and asked him to join her. The diagnosis is

a. Normal grief

b. Grief psychosis

c. Bereavement reaction

d. Supernatural phenomenon

27. Ans – B

28. Among the following which is a "Hit and run drug"

(a) Lignocaine (b) Reserpine (c) Na nitrite (d) T3

28. Ans – b

The medications whose action is irreversible is called "hit and run drugs" For example-MAO inhibitors, Omeprazole, Gaunithidine, Reserpine

29. Therapeutic confirmation of a drug is done during

(a) Phase I

(b) Phase II

(c) Phase III

(d) Phase IV

29. Ans – C

Phase 1: Screening for safety

Phase 2: Establishing the testing protocol

Phase 3: Final testing

Phase 4: Post approval studies

In Phase 1 trials, researchers test an experimental drug or treatment in a small group of people (20-80) for the first time to evaluate its safety, determine a safe dosage range, and identify side effects.

In Phase 2 trials, the experimental treatment is given to a larger group of people (100-300) to see if it is effective and to further evaluate its safety.

In Phase 3 trials, the treatment is given to large groups of people (1,000-3,000) to confirm its effectiveness, monitor side effects, compare it to commonly used treatments, and collect information that will allow it to be used safely.

In Phase 4 trials, post marketing studies delineate additional information, including the treatment's risks, benefits, and optimal use.

30.A highly ionized drug

(a) Not excreted by kidney (b) Can cross the placenta easily

(c) Not absorbed from kidney (d) Accumulates in lipids

A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney

B. Can cross the placental barrier easily

C. ls well absorbed from the intestine

D. Accumulates in the cellular lipids

30.ans A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney

Some drugs are made up of several elements combined to make the drug which has no charge. These drugs can be ionized; they can split into two parts. One of the parts carries a plus charge (+) while the other part has a negative charge (-). A simple example is table salt or sodium chloride (NaCl) which can become ionized in water. NaCl is an inorganic compound.
Highly ionized drugs are lipid insoluble. Hence their movement across cell membrane is decreased. (Resulting in decreased absorption, decreased movement across placenta, decreased reabsorption in kidney)

Nonionized

Other types of drugs such as organic compounds don't ionize. The molecules in their structures are stuck together in such a way that they do not separate into parts. An example of a nonionized compound is benzene.