Sunday, September 21, 2014

NEET Medical PG 2014

Question 1

A 62-year-old woman has a neoplasm of the left coracoid process completely compressing the axillary artery. However, the left radial arterial pulse is normal. An anastomotic connection between which of the following arteries best explains this finding?
  • Anterior and posterior humeral circumflex arteries
  • Subscapular and brachial arteries
  • Subscapular and posterior humeral circumflex arteries
  • Suprascapular and subscapular arteries
  • Thoracoacromial and supreme thoracic arteries

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