Sunday, October 26, 2014

AIPGMEE 2014-2015

Which drug produces transient muscle fasciculations followed by muscle paralysis that is not reversed by neostigmine?
  • rocuronium
  • hyoscyamine
  • cisatracurium
  • succinylcholine
  • pancuronium

Saturday, October 25, 2014

AIPGMEE 2014 - 2015

Neutrophil polymorphs:
  • Have bilobed nuclei.
  • Are the predominant cell type in chronic inflammation.
  • May fuse to form multinucleated giant cells.
  • Have phagocytic abilities.
  • Have numerous eosinophilic granules in their cytoplasm.

The following mechanisms may cause a qualitative change in the expression of a gene:
  • Gene amplification.
  • Chromosomal rearrangement.
  • Enhancer insertion.
  • Point mutation.
  • Promoter insertion.

TORCHES

TORCHES
Key Facts
• Congenital or delayed reactivation of ocular disease, maternally transmitted,
resulting in direct infection or teratogenic effect
• TORCHES: toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalic inclusion disease, herpesviruses
(including Epstein–Bar), and syphilis
• Toxoplasmosis:
• obligate intracellular organism Toxoplasma gondii • cats are defi nitive host—
oocysts reside in intestine then are secreted fecally and ingested by humans
• oocysts have predilection for retina and can remain dormant indefi nitely or
rupture • acquired congenitally via transplacental transmission or in childhood
• Rubella (German measles):
• transplacental transmission of rubella virus • eye (cataracts, pigmentary
retinopathy), ear (deafness), and cardiac abnormalities in association with
microcephaly
• Cytomegalovirus:
• transplacential transmission, contact via infected birth canal, or infected breast
milk • herpesvirus family • acquired infections occur in the
immunocompromised • deafness, microcephaly, periventricular calcifi cations,
hematologic and hepatic abnormalities
• Herpes simplex virus (HSV):
• congenital infection occurs during passage through infected birth canal
• acquired infections (HSV type 1 affects skin, eyes, and mouth; HSV type 2 is
a venereal infection acquired via genital contact) • most neonatal cases are
disseminated and involve the central nervous system, lungs, liver, and adrenal
glands • minority of cases cause skin lesions, mouth sores, and
keratoconjunctivitis
• Syphilis:
• spirochete Treponema pallidum • higher rate of transmission in late untreated
maternal infection • prematurity in association with hepatosplenopmegaly,
pneumonia, jaundice, anemia, and lymphadenopathy • periostosis or
metaphysicial abnormalities on x-ray • Hutchinson triad (wide peg-shaped teeth,
eighth nerve deafness, interstitial keratitis)
Clinical Findings
• Toxoplasmosis:
• retinitis with possible choroiditis or anterior uveitis • reactivation may occur
adjacent to an old scar (satellite lesion) • intracranial calcifi cations,
hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, and developmental delay
• Rubella:
• nuclear (morgagnian) cataract • microphthalmos • salt and pepper or pseudo
retinitis pigmentosa retinopathy
• Cytomegalovirus:
• microphthalmia, cataracts, uveitis, and retinochoroiditis • diffuse retinal
necrosis with whitening, hemorrhage, and venous sheathing
• Herpes simplex:
• conjunctivitis, keratitis (epithelial or stromal), cataracts, and retinochoroiditis
• Syphilis:
• salt and pepper or pseudo retinitis pigmentosa retinopathy • anterior uveitis or
glaucoma • bilateral interstitial keratitis
Ancillary Testing
• Toxoplasmosis:
• ELISA (enzyme-linked immunoassay) • because IgM does not cross the
placenta, positivity in the infant is evidence for congenital infection
• Rubella:
• serologic testing • isolation of virus from lens material or pharyngeal swabs
• Cytomegalovirus:
• serologic testing • isolation of virus from secretions
• Herpes simplex:
• viral cultures • PCR
• Syphilis:
• VDRL • Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption or microhemagglutination
assay for T. pallidum antibodies • Long bone x-rays
Differential Diagnosis
• Toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalic inclusion disease, herpesviruses (including
Epstein–Bar), and syphilis (TORCHES)
• Other intrauterine infections
Treatment
• Toxoplasmosis:
• treated primarily if vision-threatening, because active lesions become quiescent
after 1–2 months • systemic corticosteroids in association with pyrimethamine
and sulfadiazine plus folinic acid, or clindamycin, or
trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole
• Rubella:
• cataract extraction—beware of excess postoperative infl ammation
• Cytomegalovirus:
• intravenous and intravitreal ganciclovir • oral valacyclovir in non–visionthreatening
cases
• Herpes simplex:
• oral acyclovir • topical (trifl uridine 1% one drop nine times per day, vidarabine
3% ointment fi ve times per day; deep stromal or disciform may require topical
corticosteroids) • intravenous antivirals in disseminated disease
• Syphilis:
• intravenous aqueous penicillin G
Prognosis
• Toxoplasmosis:
• if lesion involves macula or optic nerve, vision can be permanently affected
• Rubella:
• depends on extent of retinopathy, density of cataract, and degree of
microcephaly
• Cytomegalovirus:
• depends on extent of retinopathy and whether macula or optic nerve involved
• Herpes simplex:
• depends on extent of disseminated disease and location of corneal infection
• Syphilis:
• depends on extent of congenital abnormalities versus active treatable disease

Friday, October 24, 2014

AIPGMEE 2015

Which of the following physical findings indicates a partial rather than a complete cervical spinal cord lesion?
  • Priapism
  • Perineal sensation intact to testing
  • Hypotension
  • Reflex tachycardia
  • Horner’s syndrome
http://www.nbe.gov.in/aipgmee/schedule.php

Tuesday, October 21, 2014

PGMEE 2014

A 35-year-old woman is seen 6 months after giving birth to a normal infant. She suffered severe cervical lacerations during delivery, resulting in hemorrhagic shock. Following blood transfusion and surgical repair, postpartum recovery has so far been uneventful. She now complains of continued amenorrhea and loss of weight and muscle strength. Further investigation might be expected to demonstrate which of the following findings?
  • Decreased serum cortisol
  • Hyperestrinism
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Increased hair growth in a male distribution pattern
  • Increased serum free thyroxine

Thursday, October 16, 2014

NEET PG MEdical Virology MCQs

Question 1

A 25-year-old man is diagnosed with HIV, and therapy is initiated. After the first week of therapy, the patient complains of headaches, irritability, and nightmares. Which one of the following antiretroviral drugs is most likely to be causing these symptoms?
  • Efavirenz.
  • Indinavir.
  • Lamivudine.
  • Nevirapine.
  • Stavudine.

NEET PG MEdical MCQs Virology Pharmacology

Question 1

A 30-year-old male patient with human immunodeficiency virus infection is being treated with a HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) regimen. Four weeks after initiating therapy, he comes to the emergency department complaining of fever, rash, and gastrointestinal upset. Which one of the following drugs is most likely the cause of his symptoms?
  • Zidovudine.
  • Nelfinavir.
  • Abacavir.
  • Efavirenz.
  • Darunavir.