Sunday, August 3, 2014

OSTEOMYELITIS

DESCRIPTION
Osteomyelitis (OM): Infection of bone with ongoing inflammatory destruction
Usually bacterial, but fungal OM does occur
Could be acute or chronic
ETIOLOGY
Hematogenous OM:
Primarily in children, elderly, IV drug abuse (IVDA) patients
Seeding of bacteria to bone from remote site of infection via bloodstream
Children have acute OM and adults subacute or chronic.
Hematogenous OM of long bones rarely occurs in adults.
Most children with acute hematogenous OM have no preceding illness.
1/3 have history of trauma to affected area.
Staphylococcus aureus is most common cause of OM in all ages.
Neonates: S. aureus, Enterobacteriaceae, group A and B streptococci, and Escherichia coli
Children: S. aureus, group A streptococci, Haemophilus influenzae, Enterobacteriaceae
Salmonella: Common in sickle cell disease
Adults: S. aureus, Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas, gram-negative rods, Staphylococcus epidermidis, gram-positive anaerobes, especially Peptostreptococcus
Illicit drug users: Candida, Pseudomonas, Serratia marcescens
Prolonged neutropenia: Candida, Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Blastomyces, coccidioidomycosis
Hematogenous vertebral OM:
Uncommon
Most prevalent in adults >45
Involves the disk and vertebra above and below
Often in setting of long-term urinary catheter placement, IVDA, cancer, hemodialysis, or diabetes
IVDA: OM of pubic symphysis, sternoclavicular, and sacroiliac (S-I) joints
Lumbar vertebrae most common, followed by thoracic, then cervical
Posterior extension leads to epidural/subdural abscess or meningitis.
Anterior extension may lead to paravertebral, retropharyngeal, mediastinal, subphrenic, retroperitoneal, or psoas abscess.
Direct or contiguous OM:
Organism(s) directly seeded in bone due to trauma, especially following open fractures:
Spread from adjacent site of infection or from surgery
More common in adults and adolescents
S. aureus, Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas
Normal vascularity:
S. aureus and S. epidermidis, gram-negative bacilli, and anaerobic organisms
Vascular insufficiency/diabetes:
Small bones of feet are common sites.
Infection resulting from minor trauma, infected nail beds, cellulitis, or skin ulceration
Polymicrobial, including anaerobes
Puncture wound through tennis shoe: S. aureus, Pseudomonas
Clavicular OM can occur as complication of subclavian vein catheterization.
Chronic OM:
Osteomyelitis that persists or recurs
Distinguishing characteristic is necrotic bone (sequestrum) that must be debrided.
S. epidermidis, S. aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Serratia marcescens, and E. coli

DIAGNOSIS

SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS
Vary with duration of disease
History
Mainly nonspecific symptoms
Pain: Localized, deep, dull, and throbbing; occurs with and without movement
Fever and chills; may be absent in chronic OM
Malaise, nausea, vomiting
Reluctance to use extremity
Nonhealing ulcers despite proper therapy
Consider OM as a cause of fracture nonunion
Predisposing factors: DM, vasculopathy, IVDA, invasive procedures, trauma
Physical Exam
Tenderness to palpation, warmth, erythema, edema, decreased range of motion
Drainage of sinus tract
Deep ulcers and palpable bone (+ “probe to bone” test has very high positive predictive value)
If ulcer size >2 cm2 and >3 mm in depth, bone involvement is likely.
ESSENTIAL WORKUP
CBC
ESR and C-reactive protein
Radiographs
Blood and wound cultures and sensitivities
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS & INTERPRETATION
Lab
CBC; WBC may be elevated but often normal
ESR; elevated in >90% of cases
C-reactive protein (usually elevated)
Blood cultures (positive in ~50% of cases)
Imaging
Plays a central role in evaluation
Start with plain films; other tests often required
Radiographs:
May be normal for the 1st 2–3 wk of symptoms
Earliest finding is periosteal elevation, followed by cortical erosions, then new bone formation.
40–50% of focal bone loss needed to detect lucency on radiograph; fewer than 1/3 of cases have diagnostic findings at 10 days
Obtain CXR if TB suspected
MRI:
Best modality to obtain detailed anatomy and extension of soft-tissue and bone narrow involvement
Sensitivity and specificity of ~90%
Reveals bone edema, cortical destruction, periosteal reaction, joint surface damage, and soft-tissue involvement before x-rays
Effective in early detection (3–5 days from onset of infection)
Test of choice to identify vertebral OM and OM in diabetic foot ulcers
Occasional false-positive results in trauma, previous surgical procedures, or neuropathic joint disease
Negative study after 1 wk of symptoms rules out acute OM
CT:
Modality of choice when MRI can’t be done
Reveals bone edema, cortical destruction, periosteal reaction, small foci of gas or foreign bodies, joint surface damage, and soft-tissue involvement when plain films not helpful
Useful in OM of vertebrae, sternum, calcaneus, pelvic bones
Useful to surgeons in guiding debridement and biopsy
Bone scan:
Technetium99m methylene diphosphonate (99mTc-MDP)
Measures increase in bone metabolic activity
~95% sensitive but less specific than MRI
Bone scan abnormal after 2–3 days of symptoms
False-positive may occur in trauma, surgery, chronic soft-tissue infection, tumor
High radiation burden, useful if suspect multifocal disease
Leukocyte scintigraphy:
Indium111-labeled WBCs
More specific but less sensitive than bone scan
Difficult to distinguish bone inflammation from soft-tissue inflammation (ie, cellulitis, tumors, inflammatory arthritis)
US:
An emerging modality for OM especially in children
Periosteal elevation or thickening, fluid collections adjacent to bone often seen
May show findings of OM days prior to plain films
Useful in guiding biopsy
Diagnostic Procedures/Surgery
Gold standard for diagnosis is bone biopsy with histology and tissue Gram stains, including culture and sensitivities.
Needle aspiration has lower sensitivity than open biopsy.
Culture of sinus or drainage from wound can be misleading; correlates well with S. aureus, but not as reliable for other organisms.
Pediatric Considerations
70–85% of children have fever higher than 38.5°C.
Neonates are commonly afebrile.
Only ~1 in 3 of children will have leukocytosis.
Blood cultures positive in ~50%
US
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
Cellulitis
Paronychia/felon
Bursitis, toxic synovitis, septic arthritis
Extremity fracture
Bone infarction in sickle cell patients
Acute leukemia, malignant bone tumors
Mechanical back pain
Spinal epidural abscess
Brucellosis, especially in S-I joint
TB, more common in thoracic spine (Pott disease)

TREATMENT

INITIAL STABILIZATION/THERAPY
Emergent stabilization if septic or if neurologic deficits from spine involvement
ED TREATMENT/PROCEDURES
Empiric antibiotic treatment in ED
Cultures should guide subsequent antibiotic regimen.
Antibiotics: Depend on patient’s age and organism (see Medications section)
Orthopedic and infectious disease consultation
Surgical intervention may be needed to optimize treatment (eg, infected fracture or hardware, bone necrosis).
Parenteral antibiotic treatment for 4–6 wk
MEDICATION
Newborn–4 mo: Penicillinase-resistant synthetic penicillin (eg, nafcillin: 37 mg/kg IV q6h) plus a 3rd-generation cephalosporin (eg, ceftriaxone: 50–75 mg/kg/d IV); if suspect methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) then vancomycin (40–60 mg/kg IV q6h) plus a 3rd-generation cephalosporin. (Note: Doses are based on age >28 days)
Children (>4 mo): Penicillinase-resistant synthetic penicillin (eg, nafcillin: 37 mg/kg IV q6h to max. 8–12 g/d). If suspect MRSA, then vancomycin (40–60 mg/kg IV q6h to max. 2–4 g/d). Add 3rd-generation cephalosporin if suspicion for gram-negative rods, or presence on Gram stain noted (eg, ceftriaxone: 50–75 mg/kg IV per day to max. 2–4 g/d)
Adult: Penicillinase-resistant synthetic penicillin (eg, nafcillin: 2 g IV q4h); if suspect MRSA, vancomycin (15 mg/kg IV q12h)
Sickle cell anemia with OM: Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV q12h, or levofloxacin 750 mg IV q24h (not in children); alternative: 3rd-generation cephalosporin
Post–nail puncture through tennis shoe: Ciprofloxacin 750 mg PO b.i.d. or levofloxacin 750 mg PO q24h; alternative: Ceftazidime 2 g IV q8h
Involving orthopedic prosthesis or hardware: Add rifampin (10 mg/kg/d PO/IV to maximum of 600 mg/d) to regimen for S. aureus. Hardware removal generally required.
Post-traumatic OM: Vancomycin and ceftazidime
If vancomycin-resistant enterococcus present: Linezolid 600 mg IV q12h × 6 wk
Pediatric Considerations
Children with hematogenous OM may undergo short-course IV antibiotics and then be changed to oral for additional 1–2 mo.

FOLLOW-UP

DISPOSITION
Admission Criteria
Patients with acute OM should be admitted.
Patients with chronic osteomyelitis usually require admission for surgical procedures, debridement, and obtaining bone cultures and histology.
Discharge Criteria
Subacute or chronic OM patients may be considered for outpatient management if home IV antibiotics arranged, bone specimens obtained, and necrotic bone debrided.
Cases refractory to debridement and antibiotics benefit from hyperbaric oxygen as an adjunct to standard treatment.
~2/3 of these cases will demonstrate benefit.
PEARLS AND PITFALLS
WBC may be normal in many cases.
Radiographs may be normal in the 1st 2–3 wk of symptoms.
Wound cultures are low yield in guiding antibiotic therapy.
Ref-(Thanks to)

Rosen & Barkin’s 5-Minute Emergency Medicine Consult

by 

4th edition published by Wolters Kluwer


 This article is meant exclusively as a learning resource to MBBS students. My sincere thanks to the author & Publisher.There is no commercial interest involved.Purpose is to familiarize the students to such good publications

Saturday, July 26, 2014

NEET 2014 / PGI 2014

1. Which of the following are first rank symptoms of Schizophrenia?
A.Hallucination
B.Ambivalence
C.Loosening of association
D.Made effect
E.Delusional perception
2. Which of the following are good prognostic factors in schzophrenia?
A.Presence of confusion in disoreintion in acute phase?
B.Onset less than 20 years age
C.Depression
D.Family history of mood disorder
E.Male sex
3. Which of the following are psychosomatic disorder?
A.Bronchial asthma
B.Lichen planus
C.Cushings syndrome
D.Rheumatoid arthritis
E.CVA
4. Which branches of radial nerve are given before crossing elbow?
A.Long and medial head triceps
B.Anconeus
C.Ext. carpi radialis brevis
D.Lat head of triceps
E.Brachioradialis
5. All are true about Rx of CTEV except:
A.Already operated - Ilizarove
B.4 - 8 years - wedge tarsectomy
C.8 - 11 years - triple arthodesis
D.> 12 years - Evan's operatus
E.<3 years - soft tissue release
6. All arise from metaphysis except
A.Chondrosorcoma
B.Osteosorcoma
C.Osteoid osteoma
D.Ewings sarcoma
E.Osteoclastoma
7. What is Lisfranc amputation?
A.Through ankle
B.Through talonavicular joint
C.Through intertarsal joint
D.Removal of finger + respective metacarpal
E.Making forceps with two forearms bone
8. Sources of Ca2+ in cell injury:
A.ATPase
B.Phospholipase
C.Protease
D.Endonucleaus
E.Nuclear chromatin damage
9. Which of the following statement is false?
A.Fe2+-----> Fe3+ - Fentons
B.O2 ----> H2o2 superoxide dismutase (SOD)
C.H2O2 ----> H2O (catalase)
D.GSSG ------> 2 GSH (glutathione peroxide)
E.2GSH ------> GSSG (glutathion reductase)
10. Which of antioxidants are present in cytoplasm?
A.SOD
B.Vit C
C.Vit E and A
D.Catalase
E.Ferittin
11. Which of the following comes under irreversible cell injury?
A.Pykynosis
B.Defect in cell membrane
C.ER swelling
D.Large density in mitochondria
E.Myelin figures
12. Which of the following are proapoptotic?
A.BAX
B.BAD
C.BC12
D.BCIXI
E.APAF
13. All  are preformed mediatons of acute inflammation except:
A.Prostaglandin
B.PAF
C.Activated O2
D.Histamine
E.Serotonin
14. Correctly matched?
A.Leuckocyte adh deficiency (LAD1)- Beta chain CDII /CDH INTEGRIN
B.LAD2 - Sialyl lewis X
C.Chronic granulomatoUs  disease- NADPH oxide
D.Myeloperoxidae deficiency - absent myeloperoxidase
E.Chediak Higashi - defective orgenelle trafficking
15. Which of the following are examples of granulomatous inflammation?
A.Histoplasma
B.Cryptococus neoformans
C.C.immits
D.Bartonella henslea
E.Schisostoma
16. Which of the following are syndromes are correctly marked?
A.NF type I - Nuerofibromin gene ch 17
B.NF type II - Merlin chromosome 3
C.Tuberous sclerosis - TSC1 chromosome 9
D.Von hippel Lindau disease - chromosome 22
E.
17. True about T cell:
A.Affected in immunocompromised
B.Has CD3 receptor
C.Forms EAC rosette
D.Occupy paracortical area of lymph node
E.Elevated in multiple myeloma
18. False about lgE:
A.Resemble lgA structurally
B.Heat labile
C.Shows homocytotropism
D.Elevated in type II HS reaction
E.Easily detected by serologic test like precepitation or complement fixation
19. All are  false about Wiskott Aldrich syndrome except:
A.Triad of eczema , decreased platelet, infection
B.IGE decrease, IgM increase, IgA & IgG-N
C.B cells - decrease in number
D.Only treatment bone marrow transplant
E.X inked recessive
20. Which of the following are constitute normal flora of nasopharynyx?
A.Dipthoroids
B.alpha Hemolytic streptococci
C.Anaerobes
D.Nonhemolytic steptococci
E.Septidermis
21. Which of the following cause travellers diarrhoea?
A.Aeromonas
B.Plesiomonas
C.Cyclospora
D.ETEC
E.Campylobacter
22. All of them causes intestinal invasion except:
A.V cholera
B.Shigella
C.C difficile
D.B cereus
E.Rotavirus
23. All are painless lesion except:
A.Syphillis
B.Chancroid
C.LGV
D.Donovanosis
E.Herpes
24. Which of the following are categtory B bioterrorism agents?
A.Brucella
B.Salmonella
C.Anthrax
D.Tularemia
E.SARS virus
25. Which of the following diseases transmitted by blood?
A.Hep C virus
B.Hep A virus
C.Lyme disease
D.Toxoplasma
E.Westnile virus
26. Which of the following parasite cause Loeffler syndrome?
A.Ascariasis
B.Egranulosus
C.Toxocora
D.S. stercoralis
E.E. vermilulons
27. Which of the following are transmitted by Aedes mosquito?
A.Rift valley fever
B.Chickengunya
C.West nile fever
D.St. Louis incephalitis
E.Filariasis
28. All fungal spores are asexual except:
A.Zygospore
B.Ascospore
C.Basidiospore
D.Arthospore
E.Blastospore
29. All cause endothrix infection except:
A.Maydoni
B.T torsurans
C.T volaceum
D.T schonleinni
E.M canis
30. All are complication of severe malaria?
A.Lactic acidosis
B.Hyperglycemia
C.ATN
D.Cardiogenic pulmonory edema
E.Hemoglobinemia
31. Which of the following infection occur late (> 6 months) after kidney transplantaion?
A.CMV retnitis
B.Nocardia
C.Klebseilla
D.Pnuemocystis
E.Listeria
32. All are true about P. falciparum except:
A.Produce hypnozoites
B.Shows only ring and gametocytes in periphereal smear
C.Zieman stippling is seen
D.Band form characteristically seen in late trophozite
E.Acute forms are found in ring stage.
33. All are true regarding disinfection except
A.Catgut - autoclave
B.Endotracheal tube - 5% cresol
C.Thermometer - savlon
D.Culture media  - tyndallization
E.Glassware, syringe - hot air over
34. Which of following tests are done for confirmation of death for confirming cessation of circulation?
A.Magnus test
B.I card test
C.Mirror test
D.I card test
E.Winslow test
35. Side effects of Digoxin treatment are:
A.Xanthopsia
B.Bigeminy
C.PSVT
D.Atrial fibrillation
E.AV block
36. C/I of digoxin:
A.Atrial fibrillation
B.Myocarditis
C.HOCM
D.Tamponade
E.Constructive pericardits
37. Agents decrease mortally in CHF:
A.ALE inhibitor
B.AT II blocker
C.B. Blocker
D.Aldosterone antagonist
E.Isosorbide dintrate
38. side effects of Amiodorone are:
A.Hypothyroidism
B.Hyperthyroidism
C.Renalfailure
D.Diarrohea
E.Peripheral neuropathy
39. Among hypollpidemic drugs which has maximum HDL raising property?
A.Tenofibrate
B.Rosuvastatin
C.Atorvastatin
D.Niacin
E.Probucol
40. which of the following act as ganglion blockers?
A.Trimetaphan
B.Hexamethonium
C.Mecylamine
D.Ferodolopan
E.Trimetazidine
41. Application of gene therapy:
A.Duchenne musclar dystrophye
B.Cystic fibrosis
C.Parkinsonism
D.Hintington chorea
E.Gaucher disease
42. ALL are true EXCEPT:
A.Cyclosporine act on calcium
B.Tacrolimus action MTOR directly
C.Tacrolimus is an glycopeptide antibiotic
D.It increases  activates of IL - 2
E.It cause  thrombocytosis
43. Examples of antitumor antibiotic:
A.Mitoxintrone
B.Streptozocin
C.Melphalan
D.Busulfan
E.Cermustine
44. Drugs effective against anaerobes:
A.Clindamycin
B.Moxifloxacin
C.Metronidazole
D.Vancomycin
E.Aminoglycosides
45. Higly sedating antihistmine are:
A.Cyclizine
B.Diphenhydramine
C.Dimenhydranate
D.Mepyramine
E.Cyclizine
46. Specific antineoplastic drugs acting on S phase are:
A.Doxorubicin
B.Podophyllotoxin
C.Antimetabolite
D.Bleomycin
E.Taxane
47. Which of the following in newborn can be taken as clinically insignificant?
A.Milia
B.Mangolian spot
C.Subconjunntival hemorrage
D.Phimosis
E.Epstein pearls
48. True about neonatal hepatitis are:
A.MC etiology is infection
B.UBG is present in urine
C.Stool and urine show variable colour
D.Liver biopsy show  frrequent giant cell
E.HIDA scan uptake is normal
49. contraindications to breast feeding are:
A.Untreated tuberculosis
B.Syphilis
C.HIV
D.Galactosemia
E.Healed herpes lesion
50. A/E are true about developmental milestones:
A.8 months - standing without support
B.7 moth - palmar graspt
C.3 years - draw a triangle
D.3 years - dress/undress completely
E.6 months - waves bye bye
51. Medication used in treatment of ADHD:
A.Bupropion
B.Atomoxetin
C.Methylphenidate
D.Desipramine
E.Clonidine
52. Which of the following are essential aminoacids?
A.Proline
B.Lysine
C.Treonine
D.Valine
E.Glutamicacid
53. Which of the following statements are true?
A.Enythema infectosism - HHV 6
B.Sixth disease - Parvovirus B19
C.Bullneck in diptheria is due to cervical lymphadenopathy
D.In patients with diptheria isolation of patient all 3 cultures are recommended
E.In infectious mononucleus is organism attatch to supectible T lymphocyte using specific C3rd receptor.
54. Which of the following murmur increase with squatting?
A.MS
B.PS
C.HOCM
D.VSD
E.MVP
55. Wheeze is present in :
A.Bronchilitis
B.Asthma
C.Tropical eosoniophilla
D.Loefflor syndrome
E.Hypersensitivity pnuemonitis
56. All are features favouring neuroblastoma over wilms tumor?
A.less than 2 years
B.adrenal medulla involment common
C.curvilinear calcification
D.liver mets common
E.Heterochromia iridis ccommon
57. About pediatric anesthesia all are true except:
A.Larynx posteriorly placed
B.Mobile epiglottis
C.Narrowest part is glottis
D.Large tongue
E.Intubation better in hyperextended position at atlantoccipital junction.
58. goals to be achieved in national health policy:
A.Eradicate polio - 2005
B.Eliminate lepresy - 2005
C.Eliminate kalazar - 2010
D.Achieve zero growth of HIV - 2002
E.Eliminate filarae - 2010
59. All are components of ESI act except?
A.Sickness benefit
B.Dependent benefit 70%
C.Sickness benefit - 91 days
D.Maternity benefit - miscarriage 12 weeks
E.Funeral expense = not more than 2500/-
60. All are true about radiation studies?
A.Bq --> potency of radiation
B.Roentgen > unit of exposure
C.Rad > unit of absorbed dose
D.SI unit of Rad replaced by sievert
E.Rem  indicates potential health danger
61. True statements are:
A.Endemic asetes - pyrrolidine
B.ARgemone oil - sanguinarine
C.Engot - claviceps
D.Aflatoxin - A fumigatus
E.Kesar dal - BOAA
62. All are  measures of dispersion :
A.Mean
B.Median
C.Mode
D.Standard deviation
E.Variance
63. Causes of palpable nonscarring alopeua?
A.androgenic
B.Lichen planus
C.lupus
D.A. areata
E.Tinea captis
64. True about change in fetal circulation are all except:
A.Umbilical vein - ligamentum venosum
B.Ductus venosis > constricts
C.Forame ovale >fossa ovalis
D.Ductus arteriosus >lig arteriosum
E.Umbilical artery >urachus
65. Which of the following match is true?
A.Pinard's maneur-->leg delivery facilitated in breech
B.Mariceau smellie veit - Delivery of after coming head
C.Burns Marshall --> head delivery in breech
D.Zavanelli maneuvr --delivery of head in occipitoposterior position
E.Prague maneuvr -  replacing head into abdomen and doing CS
66. Risk of ECV include:
A.#  Bone
B.abruptio placentae
C.Fetomaternal h'ge
D.Cord  Injury
E.Transient increase of HR
67. Aetiology of preterm labour:
A.Abruptio
B.Circumvallate placenta
C.multiple pregnancy
D.Uteroplacental insufficiency
E.Infection
68. Examples of hypergonadotopic hypogonadism?
A.Pituatory tumor
B.primary ovarian failure
C.Craniopharyngioma
D.Weight loss
E.Galactosemia
69. Rx of endometmosis :
A.Combined OCPs
B.Danazol
C.Long acting pregestrone
D.Premarine
E.GnRH antagonist
70. All are true about bacterial vaginosis except:
A.Frothing occur
B.KOH test (+) ve
C.Whiff test (+)ve
D.Fluconazole is Rx
E.Acidic pH favours
71. All are true except:
A.Partial mole had 46 XX karyotype
B.Mostly single agent methotrexate is used
C.MC site of metastasis is brain
D.Lung metastasis is stage IV
E.Beyshaw regime is used
72. Test in FIGO staging for ca cervix are all except:
A.CXR
B.IVP
C.USG
D.CT Pelvis
E.Cone biospy
73. Causes of palpable purpura are all except
A.ITP
B.TTP
C.Cryoglobulenemia
D.gonococcal infection
E.PAN
74. Investigation pointing to neonatal sepsis are
A.TLC < 5000
B.Band cells >10%
C.CRP >12mg/dl
D.Haptoglobulin increased
E.normal ESR ---->15mmor more /3days
75. Which of these tumours produce hypercalcemia as paraneoplastic syndrome
A.lymphomas
B.pancreas
C.renal
D.ovary
E.adrenal
76. Rx of ectopic pregnancy:
A.Salphigostomy
B.Salphigectomy
C.USG guided centesis
D.Fimbrial expression
E.Segmental expression
77. C/1 of MRI:
A.Bone implant
B.Pregnancy
C.Intraoculor foreign body
D.Aneurysmal clips
E.Pacemakers
78. Pseudokidney sign in USG:
A.Ca colon
B.Intusssusption
C.Inflammatory bowl disease
D.Midgut volvulus
E.Necroting entrocolitis
79. Features of crotis disease a/e:
A.Backwash ileitis
B.Lead pipe colon
C.Pseudopolyp
D.Slap lesions
E.Cobblestone mucosa
80. Radiologic sign of a/c pancreatitis?
A.Sentinel sign
B.Renal halo sign
C.Colon cut off sign
D.Gasless abdomen
E.Loss of Rt psoas outline
81. Complication of thyroidectomy:
A.Hyperthyroidism
B.Hypothyroidism
C.Tracheomalacia
D.Hypercalcemia
E.Resp difficulties
82. True about thoracic syndrome a/e
A.Brachial plexus compressed
B.It is only due to 1st rib
C.Sometimes subclavian vessels are compressed
D.Most cases are symptomatic
E.Most patients need surgery
83. Risk factor of ca breast:
A.Multiparity
B.Late menopause
C.OCP used
D.Radiation exposure
E.western people
84. Syndromes associated with renal cell carcinoma:
A.VHL syndrome
B.Pheochromocytoma
C.Retinal angioma
D.Endolymphatic sac tumor
E.CNS hemagioblastoma
85. True about mdullary carcinoma thyroid?
A.Usually not associated with radiation
B.Calcitonin is tumor marker
C.Respond well to radiotherpy
D.Amyloid stroma is seen
E.Associated with pheochromocytoma
86. Complication of pancreatitis:
A.Pseudocyst
B.CBD obstruction
C.Pancreatic ascites
D.Pleural effusion
E.Splancinic vein obsturction
87. All are components of Ransons criteria on admission except:
A.Hematocriet tfall
B.Urea rise
C.Calcium <2mmol/
D.WBC >16,000
E.Glucose >10mmol
88. True about choledochal cyst are:
A.Type V is corolis disease
B.In infants it present with pain
C.Type IVD affect extra hepatic duct
D.Type 1 is most common.
E.Type III is know as choledochocea
89. About ED hemorrage, true a/e:
A.Concavoconvex on CT
B.Mc cause #
C.Rapid surgery is needed
D.It is more common in old than young
E.Headache increase may indicate midline shift
90. Rx of burger,s disease:
A.vein bypass
B.Omentopexy
C.Sympathectomy
D.Spinal cord stimulation
E.Amputation
91. Structures with parotid glands :
A.Sup temporal vessel
B.retromoandibular vein
C.Facial N
D.Maxillary A
E.External carotid A
92. Intensic muscles of tongue are :
A.Sup longuitudinal
B.Thyroglossus
C.Vertical
D.Styloglossus
E.Palatoglossus
93. Examples of general viseral efferent nuclei:
A.Edinger westphal
B.Sup salivatory
C.Lacrematory
D.Nuclei tracts solitares
E.Dorsal N of vagus
94. Examples of cuboidal epithelium are
A.Thyroid follicle
B.Surface of ovary
C.Choroid plexus
D.Outer surface of lens
E.Pigment cells of retina
95. Contents of cubital fossa are:
A.Median N
B.Brachial artery
C.Supinator muscle
D.Ulnar N
E.Biceps tendon
96. Contents of posterior medianstinum are:
A.Oesophagus
B.Ascending aorta
C.Azygous vein
D.Vagus N
E.Splanchinic N
97. Diaphragm  develops from:
A.Septem transversum
B.Pleuroperitonial membrane
C.Ventral mesentry of esophagus
D.Dorsal mesentry esophagus
E.Mesoderm  of body wall
98. Structures passing through lessor siatic foramen is:
A.Obturator internus tendon
B.Pudendal  N
C.Sup gluteal N
D.Siatic N
E.Internal pudendal veins
99. Structures forming stomach bed are:
A.Left kidney
B.Pancreas
C.RT. Suprarenal
D.Splenic plexus
E.Splenic A
100. Stimuli that increase gastric  secretion :
A.Peptides
B.Distension
C.Acid
D.Calcium
E.Secretin
101. Stimuli  that increase growth hormone secretion in humans:
A.Hypoglycemia
B.Fasting
C.Exercise
D.protein meal
E.Cortisol
102. Causes of congenital hypothyroidism:
A.Maternal iodine deficiency
B.Fetal dysgenesis
C.Inborn errors
D.Antithyroid antibody
E.Hypopitutarism
103. True about inverse sketch reflex:
A.Receptors is golgibottle neuron
B.IPSP provided leads to autoinhibition
C.Threshhold of golgitendon organ is incresing
D.3 - 25 muscle fibre per tendon organ
E.Fibre of tendon organ make1b group of mylinated fibre
104. Factors high GFR:
A.High in renal bloodflow
B.Afferent artery constriction
C.Afferent artery dilation
D.increase in filtering surface area
E.uretral obstruction
105. Examples of T cell medicated hypersensitibility:
A.Multiple sclorosis
B.GVH
C.Contact dermatitis
D.Good pasture
E.Serumn sickness
106. Specific stains  for amyloid detect:
A.Alcos blue
B.Toludine blue
C.Rosenilne
D.H & E
E.Methyl nokt
107. true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver?
A.MC in males
B.Associated with HBV
C.Good prognosis than HCC
D.Serum AFP increses
E.Surgicl resection is must
108. Drugs causing hepatic granuloma:
A.INH
B.Allopurinol
C.Methyldopa
D.Gulnidine
E.Phonylbutazone
109. Centilobular neurosis of liver caused by:
A.CCL4
B.Phosphorous
C.Halothane
D.Rifampin
E.Paracetomol
110. TroponinT is preffered to CKMB in which all cases?
A.Besides diagnosis of MI
B.Postoperatiely after CABG
C.Small infarct
D.Reinfraction after 4 days
E.Diagonostic dilemma
111. True regarding iron deficiency anemia is:
A.High bone marrow iron injesion
B.Decrease transferrin binding capacity
C.Decrese ferratin
D.Decrese Serum iron level
E.Ferratin level falls only after Hb falls
112. True about cons syndrome a/e:
A.Cortical adenoma
B.Mc in men
C.Edema is common
D.Surgery is usually not needed
E.Rarely carcinoma may be seen
113. Ig A induced vasculitis is seen in:
A.HVS
B.Nephrotic
C.Wegner
D.HSP
E.PAN
114. RX of acutegout:
A.NSAID
B.Naproxen
C.Colchione
D.Allopurinol
E.Proboxid
115. LAB finding of GBS:
A.incresing CSF protein in CSF
B.incresing WBC in CSF
C.EMG shoung axon degenerates
D.Posterio tensilon test
E.CPK levels normal
116. Small intestinal biopsy diagnostic in:
A.Whipples
B.Agammaglobenemia
C.Tropical sprue
D.Abetaglobenemia
E.Amylodosis
117. True about croup A/E:
A.Children <2yr
B.Antibiotic indicated
C.Steelple sign PA veiw
D.Seal bark cough seen
E.Caused due to Hib (H infection)
118. Investigation pointing to neonatal sepsis are:
A.TLc<5000
B.Band c ell >10%
C.CRP -- > 12 mg 1dl
D.Haptoglobin increse
E.Normal ESR . 15 mm or more/3 days
119. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia causes include
A.Ineffective erythropoiesis
B.Flavispidic acid
C.Fasting
D.Dubin Johnson syndrome
E.Rotor's syndrome
120. Following are second messengers
A.cAMP
B.cGMP
C.Inositol triphosphate
D.Diacylglyercol
E.ADP