NEET 2014 / PGI 2014

1. Which of the following are first rank symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A.Hallucination

B.Ambivalence

C.Loosening of association

D.Made effect

E.Delusional perception

2. Which of the following are good prognostic factors in schzophrenia?

A.Presence of confusion in disoreintion in acute phase?

B.Onset less than 20 years age

C.Depression

D.Family history of mood disorder

E.Male sex

3. Which of the following are psychosomatic disorder?

A.Bronchial asthma

B.Lichen planus

C.Cushings syndrome

D.Rheumatoid arthritis

E.CVA

4. Which branches of radial nerve are given before crossing elbow?

A.Long and medial head triceps

B.Anconeus

C.Ext. carpi radialis brevis

D.Lat head of triceps

E.Brachioradialis

5. All are true about Rx of CTEV except:

A.Already operated - Ilizarove

B.4 - 8 years - wedge tarsectomy

C.8 - 11 years - triple arthodesis

D.> 12 years - Evan's operatus

E.<3 years - soft tissue release

6. All arise from metaphysis except

A.Chondrosorcoma

B.Osteosorcoma

C.Osteoid osteoma

D.Ewings sarcoma

E.Osteoclastoma

7. What is Lisfranc amputation?

A.Through ankle

B.Through talonavicular joint

C.Through intertarsal joint

D.Removal of finger + respective metacarpal

E.Making forceps with two forearms bone

8. Sources of Ca2+ in cell injury:

A.ATPase

B.Phospholipase

C.Protease

D.Endonucleaus

E.Nuclear chromatin damage

9. Which of the following statement is false?

A.Fe2+-----> Fe3+ - Fentons

B.O2 ----> H2o2 superoxide dismutase (SOD)

C.H2O2 ----> H2O (catalase)

D.GSSG ------> 2 GSH (glutathione peroxide)

E.2GSH ------> GSSG (glutathion reductase)

10. Which of antioxidants are present in cytoplasm?

A.SOD

B.Vit C

C.Vit E and A

D.Catalase

E.Ferittin

11. Which of the following comes under irreversible cell injury?

A.Pykynosis

B.Defect in cell membrane

C.ER swelling

D.Large density in mitochondria

E.Myelin figures

12. Which of the following are proapoptotic?

A.BAX

B.BAD

C.BC12

D.BCIXI

E.APAF

13. All  are preformed mediatons of acute inflammation except:

A.Prostaglandin

B.PAF

C.Activated O2

D.Histamine

E.Serotonin

14. Correctly matched?

A.Leuckocyte adh deficiency (LAD1)- Beta chain CDII /CDH INTEGRIN

B.LAD2 - Sialyl lewis X

C.Chronic granulomatoUs  disease- NADPH oxide

D.Myeloperoxidae deficiency - absent myeloperoxidase

E.Chediak Higashi - defective orgenelle trafficking

15. Which of the following are examples of granulomatous inflammation?

A.Histoplasma

B.Cryptococus neoformans

C.C.immits

D.Bartonella henslea

E.Schisostoma

16. Which of the following are syndromes are correctly marked?

A.NF type I - Nuerofibromin gene ch 17

B.NF type II - Merlin chromosome 3

C.Tuberous sclerosis - TSC1 chromosome 9

D.Von hippel Lindau disease - chromosome 22

E.

17. True about T cell:

A.Affected in immunocompromised

B.Has CD3 receptor

C.Forms EAC rosette

D.Occupy paracortical area of lymph node

E.Elevated in multiple myeloma

18. False about lgE:

A.Resemble lgA structurally

B.Heat labile

C.Shows homocytotropism

D.Elevated in type II HS reaction

E.Easily detected by serologic test like precepitation or complement fixation

19. All are  false about Wiskott Aldrich syndrome except:

A.Triad of eczema , decreased platelet, infection

B.IGE decrease, IgM increase, IgA & IgG-N

C.B cells - decrease in number

D.Only treatment bone marrow transplant

E.X inked recessive

20. Which of the following are constitute normal flora of nasopharynyx?

A.Dipthoroids

B.alpha Hemolytic streptococci

C.Anaerobes

D.Nonhemolytic steptococci

E.Septidermis

21. Which of the following cause travellers diarrhoea?

A.Aeromonas

B.Plesiomonas

C.Cyclospora

D.ETEC

E.Campylobacter

22. All of them causes intestinal invasion except:

A.V cholera

B.Shigella

C.C difficile

D.B cereus

E.Rotavirus

23. All are painless lesion except:

A.Syphillis

B.Chancroid

C.LGV

D.Donovanosis

E.Herpes

24. Which of the following are categtory B bioterrorism agents?

A.Brucella

B.Salmonella

C.Anthrax

D.Tularemia

E.SARS virus

25. Which of the following diseases transmitted by blood?

A.Hep C virus

B.Hep A virus

C.Lyme disease

D.Toxoplasma

E.Westnile virus

26. Which of the following parasite cause Loeffler syndrome?

A.Ascariasis

B.Egranulosus

C.Toxocora

D.S. stercoralis

E.E. vermilulons

27. Which of the following are transmitted by Aedes mosquito?

A.Rift valley fever

B.Chickengunya

C.West nile fever

D.St. Louis incephalitis

E.Filariasis

28. All fungal spores are asexual except:

A.Zygospore

B.Ascospore

C.Basidiospore

D.Arthospore

E.Blastospore

29. All cause endothrix infection except:

A.Maydoni

B.T torsurans

C.T volaceum

D.T schonleinni

E.M canis

30. All are complication of severe malaria?

A.Lactic acidosis

B.Hyperglycemia

C.ATN

D.Cardiogenic pulmonory edema

E.Hemoglobinemia

31. Which of the following infection occur late (> 6 months) after kidney transplantaion?

A.CMV retnitis

B.Nocardia

C.Klebseilla

D.Pnuemocystis

E.Listeria

32. All are true about P. falciparum except:

A.Produce hypnozoites

B.Shows only ring and gametocytes in periphereal smear

C.Zieman stippling is seen

D.Band form characteristically seen in late trophozite

E.Acute forms are found in ring stage.

33. All are true regarding disinfection except

A.Catgut - autoclave

B.Endotracheal tube - 5% cresol

C.Thermometer - savlon

D.Culture media  - tyndallization

E.Glassware, syringe - hot air over

34. Which of following tests are done for confirmation of death for confirming cessation of circulation?

A.Magnus test

B.I card test

C.Mirror test

D.I card test

E.Winslow test

35. Side effects of Digoxin treatment are:

A.Xanthopsia

B.Bigeminy

C.PSVT

D.Atrial fibrillation

E.AV block

36. C/I of digoxin:

A.Atrial fibrillation

B.Myocarditis

C.HOCM

D.Tamponade

E.Constructive pericardits

37. Agents decrease mortally in CHF:

A.ALE inhibitor

B.AT II blocker

C.B. Blocker

D.Aldosterone antagonist

E.Isosorbide dintrate

38. side effects of Amiodorone are:

A.Hypothyroidism

B.Hyperthyroidism

C.Renalfailure

D.Diarrohea

E.Peripheral neuropathy

39. Among hypollpidemic drugs which has maximum HDL raising property?

A.Tenofibrate

B.Rosuvastatin

C.Atorvastatin

D.Niacin

E.Probucol

40. which of the following act as ganglion blockers?

A.Trimetaphan

B.Hexamethonium

C.Mecylamine

D.Ferodolopan

E.Trimetazidine

41. Application of gene therapy:

A.Duchenne musclar dystrophye

B.Cystic fibrosis

C.Parkinsonism

D.Hintington chorea

E.Gaucher disease

42. ALL are true EXCEPT:

A.Cyclosporine act on calcium

B.Tacrolimus action MTOR directly

C.Tacrolimus is an glycopeptide antibiotic

D.It increases  activates of IL - 2

E.It cause  thrombocytosis

43. Examples of antitumor antibiotic:

A.Mitoxintrone

B.Streptozocin

C.Melphalan

D.Busulfan

E.Cermustine

44. Drugs effective against anaerobes:

A.Clindamycin

B.Moxifloxacin

C.Metronidazole

D.Vancomycin

E.Aminoglycosides

45. Higly sedating antihistmine are:

A.Cyclizine

B.Diphenhydramine

C.Dimenhydranate

D.Mepyramine

E.Cyclizine

46. Specific antineoplastic drugs acting on S phase are:

A.Doxorubicin

B.Podophyllotoxin

C.Antimetabolite

D.Bleomycin

E.Taxane

47. Which of the following in newborn can be taken as clinically insignificant?

A.Milia

B.Mangolian spot

C.Subconjunntival hemorrage

D.Phimosis

E.Epstein pearls

48. True about neonatal hepatitis are:

A.MC etiology is infection

B.UBG is present in urine

C.Stool and urine show variable colour

D.Liver biopsy show  frrequent giant cell

E.HIDA scan uptake is normal

49. contraindications to breast feeding are:

A.Untreated tuberculosis

B.Syphilis

C.HIV

D.Galactosemia

E.Healed herpes lesion

50. A/E are true about developmental milestones:

A.8 months - standing without support

B.7 moth - palmar graspt

C.3 years - draw a triangle

D.3 years - dress/undress completely

E.6 months - waves bye bye

51. Medication used in treatment of ADHD:

A.Bupropion

B.Atomoxetin

C.Methylphenidate

D.Desipramine

E.Clonidine

52. Which of the following are essential aminoacids?

A.Proline

B.Lysine

C.Treonine

D.Valine

E.Glutamicacid

53. Which of the following statements are true?

A.Enythema infectosism - HHV 6

B.Sixth disease - Parvovirus B19

C.Bullneck in diptheria is due to cervical lymphadenopathy

D.In patients with diptheria isolation of patient all 3 cultures are recommended

E.In infectious mononucleus is organism attatch to supectible T lymphocyte using specific C3rd receptor.

54. Which of the following murmur increase with squatting?

A.MS

B.PS

C.HOCM

D.VSD

E.MVP

55. Wheeze is present in :

A.Bronchilitis

B.Asthma

C.Tropical eosoniophilla

D.Loefflor syndrome

E.Hypersensitivity pnuemonitis

56. All are features favouring neuroblastoma over wilms tumor?

A.less than 2 years

B.adrenal medulla involment common

C.curvilinear calcification

D.liver mets common

E.Heterochromia iridis ccommon

57. About pediatric anesthesia all are true except:

A.Larynx posteriorly placed

B.Mobile epiglottis

C.Narrowest part is glottis

D.Large tongue

E.Intubation better in hyperextended position at atlantoccipital junction.

58. goals to be achieved in national health policy:

A.Eradicate polio - 2005

B.Eliminate lepresy - 2005

C.Eliminate kalazar - 2010

D.Achieve zero growth of HIV - 2002

E.Eliminate filarae - 2010

59. All are components of ESI act except?

A.Sickness benefit

B.Dependent benefit 70%

C.Sickness benefit - 91 days

D.Maternity benefit - miscarriage 12 weeks

E.Funeral expense = not more than 2500/-

60. All are true about radiation studies?

A.Bq --> potency of radiation

B.Roentgen > unit of exposure

C.Rad > unit of absorbed dose

D.SI unit of Rad replaced by sievert

E.Rem  indicates potential health danger

61. True statements are:

A.Endemic asetes - pyrrolidine

B.ARgemone oil - sanguinarine

C.Engot - claviceps

D.Aflatoxin - A fumigatus

E.Kesar dal - BOAA

62. All are  measures of dispersion :

A.Mean

B.Median

C.Mode

D.Standard deviation

E.Variance

63. Causes of palpable nonscarring alopeua?

A.androgenic

B.Lichen planus

C.lupus

D.A. areata

E.Tinea captis

64. True about change in fetal circulation are all except:

A.Umbilical vein - ligamentum venosum

B.Ductus venosis > constricts

C.Forame ovale >fossa ovalis

D.Ductus arteriosus >lig arteriosum

E.Umbilical artery >urachus

65. Which of the following match is true?

A.Pinard's maneur-->leg delivery facilitated in breech

B.Mariceau smellie veit - Delivery of after coming head

C.Burns Marshall --> head delivery in breech

D.Zavanelli maneuvr --delivery of head in occipitoposterior position

E.Prague maneuvr -  replacing head into abdomen and doing CS

66. Risk of ECV include:

A.#  Bone

B.abruptio placentae

C.Fetomaternal h'ge

D.Cord  Injury

E.Transient increase of HR

67. Aetiology of preterm labour:

A.Abruptio

B.Circumvallate placenta

C.multiple pregnancy

D.Uteroplacental insufficiency

E.Infection

68. Examples of hypergonadotopic hypogonadism?

A.Pituatory tumor

B.primary ovarian failure

C.Craniopharyngioma

D.Weight loss

E.Galactosemia

69. Rx of endometmosis :

A.Combined OCPs

B.Danazol

C.Long acting pregestrone

D.Premarine

E.GnRH antagonist

70. All are true about bacterial vaginosis except:

A.Frothing occur

B.KOH test (+) ve

C.Whiff test (+)ve

D.Fluconazole is Rx

E.Acidic pH favours

71. All are true except:

A.Partial mole had 46 XX karyotype

B.Mostly single agent methotrexate is used

C.MC site of metastasis is brain

D.Lung metastasis is stage IV

E.Beyshaw regime is used

72. Test in FIGO staging for ca cervix are all except:

A.CXR

B.IVP

C.USG

D.CT Pelvis

E.Cone biospy

73. Causes of palpable purpura are all except

A.ITP

B.TTP

C.Cryoglobulenemia

D.gonococcal infection

E.PAN

74. Investigation pointing to neonatal sepsis are

A.TLC < 5000

B.Band cells >10%

C.CRP >12mg/dl

D.Haptoglobulin increased

E.normal ESR ---->15mmor more /3days

75. Which of these tumours produce hypercalcemia as paraneoplastic syndrome

A.lymphomas

B.pancreas

C.renal

D.ovary

E.adrenal

76. Rx of ectopic pregnancy:

A.Salphigostomy

B.Salphigectomy

C.USG guided centesis

D.Fimbrial expression

E.Segmental expression

77. C/1 of MRI:

A.Bone implant

B.Pregnancy

C.Intraoculor foreign body

D.Aneurysmal clips

E.Pacemakers

78. Pseudokidney sign in USG:

A.Ca colon

B.Intusssusption

C.Inflammatory bowl disease

D.Midgut volvulus

E.Necroting entrocolitis

79. Features of crotis disease a/e:

A.Backwash ileitis

B.Lead pipe colon

C.Pseudopolyp

D.Slap lesions

E.Cobblestone mucosa

80. Radiologic sign of a/c pancreatitis?

A.Sentinel sign

B.Renal halo sign

C.Colon cut off sign

D.Gasless abdomen

E.Loss of Rt psoas outline

81. Complication of thyroidectomy:

A.Hyperthyroidism

B.Hypothyroidism

C.Tracheomalacia

D.Hypercalcemia

E.Resp difficulties

82. True about thoracic syndrome a/e

A.Brachial plexus compressed

B.It is only due to 1st rib

C.Sometimes subclavian vessels are compressed

D.Most cases are symptomatic

E.Most patients need surgery

83. Risk factor of ca breast:

A.Multiparity

B.Late menopause

C.OCP used

D.Radiation exposure

E.western people

84. Syndromes associated with renal cell carcinoma:

A.VHL syndrome

B.Pheochromocytoma

C.Retinal angioma

D.Endolymphatic sac tumor

E.CNS hemagioblastoma

85. True about mdullary carcinoma thyroid?

A.Usually not associated with radiation

B.Calcitonin is tumor marker

C.Respond well to radiotherpy

D.Amyloid stroma is seen

E.Associated with pheochromocytoma

86. Complication of pancreatitis:

A.Pseudocyst

B.CBD obstruction

C.Pancreatic ascites

D.Pleural effusion

E.Splancinic vein obsturction

87. All are components of Ransons criteria on admission except:

A.Hematocriet tfall

B.Urea rise

C.Calcium <2mmol/

D.WBC >16,000

E.Glucose >10mmol

88. True about choledochal cyst are:

A.Type V is corolis disease

B.In infants it present with pain

C.Type IVD affect extra hepatic duct

D.Type 1 is most common.

E.Type III is know as choledochocea

89. About ED hemorrage, true a/e:

A.Concavoconvex on CT

B.Mc cause #

C.Rapid surgery is needed

D.It is more common in old than young

E.Headache increase may indicate midline shift

90. Rx of burger,s disease:

A.vein bypass

B.Omentopexy

C.Sympathectomy

D.Spinal cord stimulation

E.Amputation

91. Structures with parotid glands :

A.Sup temporal vessel

B.retromoandibular vein

C.Facial N

D.Maxillary A

E.External carotid A

92. Intensic muscles of tongue are :

A.Sup longuitudinal

B.Thyroglossus

C.Vertical

D.Styloglossus

E.Palatoglossus

93. Examples of general viseral efferent nuclei:

A.Edinger westphal

B.Sup salivatory

C.Lacrematory

D.Nuclei tracts solitares

E.Dorsal N of vagus

94. Examples of cuboidal epithelium are

A.Thyroid follicle

B.Surface of ovary

C.Choroid plexus

D.Outer surface of lens

E.Pigment cells of retina

95. Contents of cubital fossa are:

A.Median N

B.Brachial artery

C.Supinator muscle

D.Ulnar N

E.Biceps tendon

96. Contents of posterior medianstinum are:

A.Oesophagus

B.Ascending aorta

C.Azygous vein

D.Vagus N

E.Splanchinic N

97. Diaphragm  develops from:

A.Septem transversum

B.Pleuroperitonial membrane

C.Ventral mesentry of esophagus

D.Dorsal mesentry esophagus

E.Mesoderm  of body wall

98. Structures passing through lessor siatic foramen is:

A.Obturator internus tendon

B.Pudendal  N

C.Sup gluteal N

D.Siatic N

E.Internal pudendal veins

99. Structures forming stomach bed are:

A.Left kidney

B.Pancreas

C.RT. Suprarenal

D.Splenic plexus

E.Splenic A

100. Stimuli that increase gastric  secretion :

A.Peptides

B.Distension

C.Acid

D.Calcium

E.Secretin

101. Stimuli  that increase growth hormone secretion in humans:

A.Hypoglycemia

B.Fasting

C.Exercise

D.protein meal

E.Cortisol

102. Causes of congenital hypothyroidism:

A.Maternal iodine deficiency

B.Fetal dysgenesis

C.Inborn errors

D.Antithyroid antibody

E.Hypopitutarism

103. True about inverse sketch reflex:

A.Receptors is golgibottle neuron

B.IPSP provided leads to autoinhibition

C.Threshhold of golgitendon organ is incresing

D.3 - 25 muscle fibre per tendon organ

E.Fibre of tendon organ make1b group of mylinated fibre

104. Factors high GFR:

A.High in renal bloodflow

B.Afferent artery constriction

C.Afferent artery dilation

D.increase in filtering surface area

E.uretral obstruction

105. Examples of T cell medicated hypersensitibility:

A.Multiple sclorosis

B.GVH

C.Contact dermatitis

D.Good pasture

E.Serumn sickness

106. Specific stains  for amyloid detect:

A.Alcos blue

B.Toludine blue

C.Rosenilne

D.H & E

E.Methyl nokt

107. true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver?

A.MC in males

B.Associated with HBV

C.Good prognosis than HCC

D.Serum AFP increses

E.Surgicl resection is must

108. Drugs causing hepatic granuloma:

A.INH

B.Allopurinol

C.Methyldopa

D.Gulnidine

E.Phonylbutazone

109. Centilobular neurosis of liver caused by:

A.CCL4

B.Phosphorous

C.Halothane

D.Rifampin

E.Paracetomol

110. TroponinT is preffered to CKMB in which all cases?

A.Besides diagnosis of MI

B.Postoperatiely after CABG

C.Small infarct

D.Reinfraction after 4 days

E.Diagonostic dilemma

111. True regarding iron deficiency anemia is:

A.High bone marrow iron injesion

B.Decrease transferrin binding capacity

C.Decrese ferratin

D.Decrese Serum iron level

E.Ferratin level falls only after Hb falls

112. True about cons syndrome a/e:

A.Cortical adenoma

B.Mc in men

C.Edema is common

D.Surgery is usually not needed

E.Rarely carcinoma may be seen

113. Ig A induced vasculitis is seen in:

A.HVS

B.Nephrotic

C.Wegner

D.HSP

E.PAN

114. RX of acutegout:

A.NSAID

B.Naproxen

C.Colchione

D.Allopurinol

E.Proboxid

115. LAB finding of GBS:

A.incresing CSF protein in CSF

B.incresing WBC in CSF

C.EMG shoung axon degenerates

D.Posterio tensilon test

E.CPK levels normal

116. Small intestinal biopsy diagnostic in:

A.Whipples

B.Agammaglobenemia

C.Tropical sprue

D.Abetaglobenemia

E.Amylodosis

117. True about croup A/E:

A.Children <2yr

B.Antibiotic indicated

C.Steelple sign PA veiw

D.Seal bark cough seen

E.Caused due to Hib (H infection)

118. Investigation pointing to neonatal sepsis are:

A.TLc<5000

B.Band c ell >10%

C.CRP -- > 12 mg 1dl

D.Haptoglobin increse

E.Normal ESR . 15 mm or more/3 days

119. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia causes include

A.Ineffective erythropoiesis

B.Flavispidic acid

C.Fasting

D.Dubin Johnson syndrome

E.Rotor's syndrome

120. Following are second messengers

A.cAMP

B.cGMP

C.Inositol triphosphate

D.Diacylglyercol

E.ADP